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Exam 3 with Answer Key - Biology I | BIOL 101, Exams of Biology

Idaho State University (ISU)Biology

Material Type: Exam; Class: BIOLOGY I; Subject: Biological Sciences; University: Idaho State University; Term: Fall 2010;

Typology: Exams

2009/2010

Uploaded on 12/15/2010

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Biology 1101 Fall 2010 Exam 3
1. Malte Andersson's study of widowbirds demonstrated that
A) females prefer males with unaltered tails.
B) females' preferences change according to the season.
C) sexually selected traits have no benefits or costs to survivorship.
D) long tails help males compete against other males.
E) females prefer males with longer-than-average tails.
2. Natural selection works directly on
A) the genotype and indirectly on the phenotype.
B) the phenotype and indirectly on the genotype.
C) both the genotype and the phenotype.
D) the genotype only when the population is at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium.
E) neither the genotype nor the phenotype.
3. Which of the following is true?
A) It is possible to have a negative allele frequency.
B) Allele frequencies can be greater than 1 in some populations.
C) The sum of all allele frequencies is 0.
D) The allele frequency is the number of copies of the allele in the population, divided
by the total number (sum) of all alleles in the population.
E) None of the above
4. The condition in which males and females differ dramatically in phenotypic
characteristics is called
A) polygyny.
B) Muller's ratchet.
C) sexual dimorphism.
D) sexual selection.
E) directional selection.
5. In Griffith's experiments, when heat-killed S strain pneumococci were injected into a
mouse along with live R strain pneumococci,
A) DNA from the live R was taken up by the heat-killed S, converting the latter to R
and killing the mouse.
B) DNA from the heat-killed S was taken up by the live R, converting the latter to S
and killing the mouse.
C) proteins released from the heat-killed S killed the mouse.
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Download Exam 3 with Answer Key - Biology I | BIOL 101 and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity!

Biology 1101 Fall 2010 Exam 3

  1. Malte Andersson's study of widowbirds demonstrated that A) females prefer males with unaltered tails. B) females' preferences change according to the season. C) sexually selected traits have no benefits or costs to survivorship. D) long tails help males compete against other males. E) females prefer males with longer-than-average tails.
  2. Natural selection works directly on A) the genotype and indirectly on the phenotype. B) the phenotype and indirectly on the genotype. C) both the genotype and the phenotype. D) the genotype only when the population is at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. E) neither the genotype nor the phenotype.
  3. Which of the following is true? A) It is possible to have a negative allele frequency. B) Allele frequencies can be greater than 1 in some populations. C) The sum of all allele frequencies is 0. D) The allele frequency is the number of copies of the allele in the population, divided by the total number (sum) of all alleles in the population. E) None of the above
  4. The condition in which males and females differ dramatically in phenotypic characteristics is called A) polygyny. B) Muller's ratchet. C) sexual dimorphism. D) sexual selection. E) directional selection.
  5. In Griffith's experiments, when heat-killed S strain pneumococci were injected into a mouse along with live R strain pneumococci, A) DNA from the live R was taken up by the heat-killed S, converting the latter to R and killing the mouse. B) DNA from the heat-killed S was taken up by the live R, converting the latter to S and killing the mouse. C) proteins released from the heat-killed S killed the mouse.

D) RNA from the heat-killed S was translated into proteins that killed the mouse. E) there was no result.

  1. In PCR, _______ creates single-stranded DNA template molecules. A) heat B) high salt concentration C) DNA polymerase D) exonuclease E) a primer
  2. Muller's ratchet describes the A) breaking down of adaptive combinations of genes by recombination. B) elimination of deleterious mutations due to sexual reproduction. C) accumulation of deleterious mutations in asexual lineages. D) crossing over and independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis. E) maintenance of genetic variation via disruptive selection.
  3. In order for a population to evolve, A) its members must have heritable genetic variation. B) natural selection must be acting on the population. C) the population must reproduce sexually. D) all members of the population must have identical phenotypes. E) all members of the population must have identical genotypes.
  4. The major phenotypic expression of genotype is in A) proteins. B) tRNA. C) mRNA. D) nucleic acids. E) a mutation.
  5. Which of the following statements about Darwin is true? A) Even as a youth he recognized that life evolves. B) He published his observations about evolution soon after the HMS Beagle arrived in England. C) He was the only person credited with the idea of evolution. D) He recognized that animals on the Galápagos Islands were identical to those on the mainland. E) He had a keen interest in geology.

B) information flow in the cell is unidirectional, from protein to RNA to DNA. C) information flow in the cell is unidirectional, from DNA to RNA to protein. D) the DNA sequence of a gene can be predicted if we know the amino acid sequence of the protein it encodes. E) the genetic code is ambiguous but not degenerate.

  1. Segregation of alleles occurs A) during gamete formation. B) at fertilization. C) during mitosis. D) during the random combination of gametes to produce the F 2 generation. E) only in monohybrid crosses.
  2. Which of the following does (do) not follow the “central dogma”? A) Yeast B) Onion cells C) Bread mold D) Skin cells E) Retroviruses
  3. Which of the following is not a condition for the Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium? A) Absence of gene flow B) Absence of differential survival among genotypes C) Random mating of individuals with respect to genotype D) Absence of genetic drift that would cause chance fluctuations of allele frequencies E) Small population size
  4. Which of the following is a benefit of sexual reproduction? A) It generates new combinations of alleles upon which selection can act. B) It breaks up adaptive combinations of genes. C) The division of offspring into separate genders reduces the overall reproductive rate. D) It promotes Muller's ratchet. E) All of the above
  5. Which of the following methods was not used by Mendel in his study of the genetics of the garden pea? A) Maintenance of true-breeding lines B) Cross-pollination C) Microscopy

D) Production of hybrid plants E) Quantitative analysis of results

  1. Tim Birkhead and his colleagues were able to boost the immune systems of male zebra finches and increase their attractiveness to females by A) enlarging their tails. B) injecting them with hormones. C) feeding them carotenoid pigments. D) increasing their caloric intake. E) injecting them with phytohemagglutinin.
  2. In order to show that DNA is the “transforming principle,” Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty showed that DNA could transform nonvirulent strains of pneumococcus. Their hypothesis was strengthened by their demonstration that A) enzymes that destroy proteins also destroy transforming activity. B) enzymes that destroy nucleic acids also destroy transforming activity. C) enzymes that destroy complex carbohydrates also destroy transforming activity. D) the transforming activity is destroyed by boiling. E) other strains of bacteria also can be transformed successfully.
  3. Which of the following modes of selection leads to a reduction in variation but no change in the mean? A) Stabilizing selection B) Directional selection C) Disruptive selection D) Both a and c E) Both b and c
  4. Mendel's crossing of spherical-seeded pea plants with wrinkled-seeded pea plants resulted in progeny that all had spherical seeds. This indicates that the wrinkled-seed trait is A) codominant. B) dominant. C) recessive. D) Both a and b E) Both a and c
  5. Which of the following processes results in adaptation? A) Mutation
  1. The physical appearance of a character is called A) the genotype. B) the phenotype. C) an allele. D) a trait. E) a gene.
  2. When researchers observe populations that have large deviations from Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, they can safely dismiss which of the following mechanisms as the explanation for the deviation? A) Natural selection B) Gene flow C) Nonrandom mating D) Mutation E) None of the above
  3. Which of the following is a consequence of human activity? A) The decreasing size of animals that are the object of trophy hunting B) The evolution of antibiotic resistance C) Climate change D) A great increase in the rate of animal extinctions E) All of the above
  4. Which of the following molecules functions to transfer information from one generation to the next in eukaryotes? A) DNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) Proteins E) Lipids
  5. Different forms of a gene are called A) traits. B) phenotypes. C) genotypes. D) alleles. E) None of the above
  1. In DNA replication, each newly made strand is A) identical in DNA sequence to the strand from which it was copied. B) complementary in sequence to the strand from which it was copied. C) oriented in the same 3' to 5' direction as the strand from which it was copied. D) an incomplete copy of one of the parental strands. E) a hybrid molecule consisting of both ribo- and deoxyribonucleotides.
  2. Which of the following modes of selection can result in an evolutionary trend? A) Stabilizing selection B) Directional selection C) Disruptive selection D) Both b and c E) None of the above
  3. Transcription is the process of A) synthesizing a DNA molecule from an RNA template. B) assembling ribonucleoside triphosphates into an RNA molecule without a template. C) synthesizing an RNA molecule using a DNA template. D) synthesizing a protein using information from a messenger RNA. E) replicating a single-stranded DNA molecule.
  4. If a trait not expressed in the F 1 generation reappears in the F 2 generation, the inheritance of the trait in question is an example of A) codominance. B) dominance and recessiveness. C) incomplete dominance. D) epistasis. E) a sex-linked trait.
  5. The stop codons code for A) no amino acid. B) methionine. C) glycine. D) halt enzyme. E) DNA binding protein.
  6. Mendel concluded that each pea has two units for each character, and each gamete contains one unit. Mendel's “unit” is now referred to as a(n) A) gene.

A) phenotype. B) genotype. C) trait. D) mutation. E) None of the above

  1. The artificial selection experiments with bristle number in Drosophila melanogaster illustrate which of the following generalities? A) In such experiments, it is difficult to obtain individuals with traits that fall outside the range found in the original population. B) Populations often contain considerable genetic variation upon which selection can operate. C) A particular phenotype can be produced by more than one genotype. D) Such experiments usually take thousands of generations to achieve their results. E) Bristle number is a genotype, not a phenotype.
  2. Which of the following is true? A) No real population in nature ever fully meets the conditions of the Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. B) The Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium shows that allele frequencies will remain constant except when some mechanism causes them to change. C) The Hardy–Weinberg model is a null hypothesis that describes what would happen in the absence of evolutionary change. D) Deviations from Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium can help researchers identify mechanisms of evolutionary change. E) All of the above
  3. How does RNA differ from DNA? A) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine and it is usually single-stranded. B) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine and it is usually double-stranded. C) RNA contains thymine instead of uracil and it is usually single-stranded. D) RNA contains uracil instead of cytosine. E) None of the above

Answer Key

1. E

2. B

3. D

4. C

5. B

6. A

7. C

8. A

9. A

10. E

11. B

12. A

13. D

14. E

15. C

16. C

17. A

18. E

19. E

20. A

21. C

22. C

23. B

24. A

25. C

26. B

27. A

28. E

29. A

30. A

31. E

32. B

33. D

34. E

35. A

36. D

37. B

38. B

39. C

40. B

41. A

42. A

43. B

44. D