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exam 1 fall 2024 biol 216, Exams of Biology

Case Western Reserve University (CWRU)Biology

practice for exam 1 biology 216

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Uploaded on 01/25/2025

luckyleopard
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Exam 1:
Biology 216 Fall Term 2024
Dr. Kuemerle
Case Network ID (eg., abc12): __________
1. Prior to the start of the exam, place all backpacks, electronic devices
(calculators, iwatches, cell phones, earpods, etc.) and personal items at the front of
the classroom.
2. Sit in odd numbered seats. If all odd numbered seats are taken, ask a GTA or Dr K
where to sit.
3. Please take care of personal hygiene prior to the exam. Once the exam has
started, you must hand in your exam (and it will then be graded as is) if you need to
leave the lecture hall to use the restroom, get a drink, etc.
4. You may keep Kleenex, drink bottles, etc. with you during the exam.
5. I will not answer any questions during the exam as it is too disruptive to the
class.
6. Do not start this exam (that is, turn to the next page) until I indicate
that you can.
7. USE ONLY A NUMBER 2 PENCIL.
8. Write your name, Case network ID (eg., abc12) neatly on the Scantron answer
sheet.
9. Academic integrity violations will be promptly reported.
10. Read each question carefully. Do your best. Good Luck!
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Download exam 1 fall 2024 biol 216 and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity!

Exam 1:

Biology 216 Fall Term 2024

Dr. Kuemerle

Case Network ID (eg., abc12): __________

  1. Prior to the start of the exam, place all backpacks, electronic devices (calculators, iwatches, cell phones, earpods, etc.) and personal items at the front of the classroom.
  2. Sit in odd numbered seats. If all odd numbered seats are taken, ask a GTA or Dr K where to sit.
  3. Please take care of personal hygiene prior to the exam. Once the exam has started, you must hand in your exam (and it will then be graded as is) if you need to leave the lecture hall to use the restroom, get a drink, etc.
  4. You may keep Kleenex, drink bottles, etc. with you during the exam.
  5. I will not answer any questions during the exam as it is too disruptive to the class. **6. Do not start this exam (that is, turn to the next page) until I indicate that you can.
  6. USE ONLY A NUMBER 2 PENCIL.**
  7. Write your name, Case network ID (eg., abc12) neatly on the Scantron answer sheet.
  8. Academic integrity violations will be promptly reported.
  9. Read each question carefully. Do your best. Good Luck!

BIOL 216 Exam 1 Fall 2024: Choose the best answer.

  1. Some studies suggest that, in patients who have Alzheimer’s disease, there is a defect in the way the spindle apparatus is attached to the kinetochore fibers. At which stage of mitotic division would one first expect to be able to visualize this problem? A. Prophase/Prometaphase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase E. None of the above
  2. A researcher wishes to incorporate a radiolabeled deoxyadenine into the genome of one of the two daughter cells that would arise as a result of mitosis. What is the latest stage of cellular development during which the radiolabeled deoxyadenine could be added to achieve this result? A. G B. Metaphase C. G D. S E. Cytokinesis
  3. Cancer cells are cells in which mitosis occurs continuously, without regard to the quality or quantity of the cell produced. For this reason, most chemotherapies attack rapidly dividing cells. At which point(s) in the cell cycle could chemotherapy effectively prevent cancer cell division? I. S stage II. Prophase III. Metaphase A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III E. None of the above
  4. What is the last point in the meiosis in which the cell has a diploid number of chromosomes? A. During interphase B. During Telophase I C. During interkinesis D. During Telophase II E. None of the above
  5. Which of the following does NOT likely contribute to significant genetic variability? A. Replication of the DNA during M phase B. Random fertilization of an egg by a sperm C. Random segregation of homologous chromosomes D. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis
  1. Developmental biologist often use terms like: specification, determination and differentiation. Specification can be defined as the initial stage of cell specialization in which the cell is designated as a specific cell type. Determination refers to the commitment of a cell to a particular function in the future. After a cell’s fate has been determined, the cell must undertake changes that cause the cell to develop into the determined cell type. These include changes in structure and biochemistry of the cell to match the cell type. This process is called differentiation. With this in mind, are the following statements TRUE or FALSE? An example of specification is a cell being specified to be a gamete. An example of determination is a gamete being determined to be either an egg or a sperm. An example of differentiation is precursor cell going through the process of spermatogenesis to become sperm. A. TRUE B. FALSE
  2. In humans, one of the first signs of gastrulation is the formation of the___ A. notochord B. tertiary chronic villi C. primitive streak D. neural tube E. morula
  3. Pregnant women are encouraged to take folic acid (vitamin B9). Folic acid is the only form of folate that has been shown to prevent NTDs (neural tube defects), which can include spina bifida, anencephaly, and encephalocele. Folic acid is believed to help the body produce new cells, including blood cells, brain cells, skin, hair, and nails. Also, a publication in the Journal of Neonatal Surgery (J Neonatal Surg. 2012 Jul-Sep; 1(3): 43) states the following: “Folic acid prevents NTDs by taking part in the repair of damaged DNA of neural crest cells”. What are neural crest cells? A. They are cells that give rise to somites. B. They are multipotent stem cells that migrate throughout an embryo and give rise to many different cell types, such as peripheral nerves. C. They are specific cells that are formed from the archenteron of the developing embryo. D. They are specialized cells found in the primitive streak during Xenopus (frog) development. E. None of the above.
  4. Neurofibromatosis type I, or von Recklinghausen’s disease, is a disorder that causes formation of tumors in multiple nervous system structures as well as the skin. While cells carry the same mutation on chromosome 17, selective transcription of the genome appears to cause the most significant tumorigenesis in which of the following primary germ tissue layers? A. ectoderm B. mesoderm C. endoderm D. notochord E. neural plate
  1. Which of the following is FALSE with regard to iPSCs? A. They retain inherent pluripotency if harvested from specific organs. B. They require treatment from various transcription factors to be made. C. There is a reduced risk of rejection of the patient’s own cells are used. D. All of the above E. None of the above
  2. A micromere is a small cell that results from unequal cell division during early embryological development in many animals. In the sea urchin, the molecule responsible for specifying the micromeres (and their ability to induce the neighboring cells) appears to be β-catenin. β-catenin is a transcription factor that is often activated by the Wnt pathway. Interestingly, Wnt can be involved in a number of processes. In the vertebrate limb, for example, Wnt7a , which is expressed in the ectoderm, provides the signal required for Shh expression. _Shh ______ A. is a gene that encodes for a G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) B. is a protein normally secreted by cells in the AER C. is a member of the Hox gene family D. Is primarily involved with proximal-distal organization in the developing limb bud E. None of the above
  3. In which stage are tetrads of chromosomes aligned at the equator of the spindle and this alignment determines independent assortment? A. Metaphase I B. Prophase II C. Metaphase II D. Anaphase I E. None of the above
  4. In sea urchin fertilization, contact of a sperm with the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo____ A. mitosis B. hyperpolarization C. apoptosis D. vitellogenesis E. None of the above
  5. The Müllerian ducts, also known as paramesonephric ducts, are paired tubes that develop in both male and female embryos. In males, the Müllerian ducts typically regress due to the production of Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH). Mutations in the AMH and AMHR2 genes can cause nonfunctional proteins that don't signal for regression. This condition, called Persistent Müllerian Duct Syndrome (PMDS), can likely lead to____ A. the Müllerian ducts forming the epididymis and vas deferens in the female B. the over expression of the sry gene in females C. the Müllerian ducts forming the epididymis and vas deferens in the male D. the Müllerian ducts forming a uterus and fallopian tubes in males E. None of the above

D. resact is released from the jelly layer into the surrounding water E. capacitation occurs

  1. All of the following accurately describe the bicoid gene, except _____ A. The bicoid gene product is essential for setting up the posterior end of the fly B. The bicoid gene can be classified as a morphogen C. The bicoid gene has a highly conserved DNA sequence that codes for a protein domain that can bind to DNA and regulate gene expression D. The bicoid gene can be classified as a maternal effect gene E. The bicoid protein is distributed in a gradient in a normal drosophila embryo.
  2. Both the ZPA and the AER are important for limb development. The AER A. has cells that secrete proteins in the FGF family B. has cells that secrete proteins in the SHH family C. organizes the A/P axis in the limb bud D. can be transplanted into a host limb bud and give rise to digits 3 and 4 respectively E. is a signaling molecule and transcription regulator involved in limb development
  3. Which best characterizes the menstrual flow phase of the uterine cycle? A. FSH, LH, estradiol, and progesterone are all low B. High estradiol (estrogen) and progesterone C. LH surge D. Increasing estradiol (estrogen). Low LH and high progesterone E. FSH surge
  4. If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then A. cleavage would not occur in the zygote. B. there would be no formation of 3 cell layers C. implantation would be blocked. D. the blastula would not be formed. E. the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole.
  5. Diabetes occurs when mechanisms for regulating blood glucose are not functioning appropriately and blood glucose fluctuates out of the normal range. High glucose result in damage to the body. Diabetes (such as Type 1 diabetes) ________ A. is an example of a homeostatic balance B. if untreated, can lead to alkalosis C. is an example of balanced negative feedback D. is an example of a homeostatic imbalance and if untreated, can lead to ketoacidosis E. all of the above 29.Form (anatomy) and function (physiology) go together. Cells have different shapes and properties, and they form tissue that is suitable for specific functions. Connective tissue provides strength, elasticity and support. Which of the following is a type of connective tissue? A. fibrous

B. squamous C. columnar D. epithelial E. smooth

  1. If your blood pressure increases significantly, the ______ would send signals (action potentials) to the _____ by way of the _____, in order to produce a slower and less forceful heartbeat, thus restoring homeostasis. A. osmoreceptors, hypolthalamus, somatic nervous system B. Pancinian corpuscles, thalamus, reticular formation C. baroreceptors, brainstem, autonomic nervous system D. juxtaglomerular cells, heart, enteric nervous system E. None of above
  2. Regarding thermoregulation, which of the following is (are) a true statement? A. Countercurrent exchange ensures gradients that facilitate the maximal amount of heat retention B. Animals can change their heat conductance by vasoconstriction and vasodilation C. A layer of fat is a good insulator. D. A, B and C E. None of the above
  3. Cells continually generate CO 2 as a consequence of the oxidation of glucose and fatty acids required to meet their energy needs. If there were no other methods in the cell for transport of CO 2 in or out of the cell, what effect would this process have on intracellular pH? A. The pH would be lower B. The pH would be higher C. The pH would remain neutral D. The pH would initially increase, then decrease to standard levels E. None of the above
  4. Susan Strome and Bill Wood discovered P granules in Caenorhabditis elegans embryos. They discovered the granules by accident when they found a rabbit IgG serum that recognized the granules in the embryos. The granules were only found in the P lineage. P granules____ A. indicate that cell fate can be determined very early in development B. are complexes of RNA and proteins that can be found in adult germ cells in the gonad C. specify the dorsal-ventral axis D. A and B E. A, B and C
  5. In males, a varicocele can develop when veins (specifically, the pampiniform plexus) become enlarged inside the scrotum. This can cause the testis to overheat and reduce sperm production. With regard to sperm production, which of the following is true? A. Testicular spermatozoa are fully mature and capable of fertilizing the egg

B. trophoblast: secretes enzymes that break down the lining of the uterus to facilitate implantation C. somites: give rise to vertebrae D. A and C only E. A, B and C

  1. Certain proteins or mRNAs that are regionally localized within the unfertilized egg and are often involved in cell fate determination are known as_____ A. chemotaxic attractants B. morphometric regulators C. cytoplasmic determinants D. gene factors E. bindins
  2. To meet a zygote's metabolic and developmental requirements, A. maternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present. B. paternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present. C. the haploid DNA in the nucleus must be transcribed. D. the nucleus must have hundreds of copies of every gene, allowing a high rate of gene expression. E. the zygote must continuously undergo endocytosis of proteins to take them from its environment.
  3. Considering the nature of negative feedback control and the function of the respiratory system, how might the body respond to an increase in CO 2 in the internal environment in order to restore pH homeostasis? A. Increase in respiratory activity: faster, deeper breathing B. Release of more H+ in the urine C. Reduction in respiratory activity: slower, shallower breathing D. Release of ADH, insertion of aquaporin channels in the kidney tubule E. Both A and B
  4. Which of the following would occur to restore homeostasis when osmoreceptors detect and increase in solute concentration due to water loss? A. The hypothalamus would stimulate thirst B. There would be a reduction in the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland C. Urinary output would be increased D. The hippocampus would increase its production and secretion of ADH E. None of the above
  5. Spatial bypass of a countercurrent exchanger is found in the arm. In cold weather, the blood flowing into the arm returns to the core of the body through A. veins that run adjacent to arteries B. arteries that run adjacent to veins C. veins lying near the surface of the arm D. arteries lying near the surface of the arm E. dilated superficial veins
  1. Which of the following terms are not related? A. Osmoreceptors: ADH B. Baroreceptors: blood pressure control C. Vasoconstriction: nitric oxide D. Type I Diabetes: ketoacidosis E. Chemoreceptors: aorta and carotid arteries
  2. Squamous, cuboidal and columnar describe common shapes of _______ tissue, whose functions include____. A. endothelial; lining glands and blood vessels B. epithelial; diffusion/secretion/absorption C. fibrous connective; providing support and elasticity D. integumentary; insulation and movement E. loose connective; support and pliability
  3. A specific process was used to clone the sheep, Dolly. With regard to this process, which of the following is true? A. Cultured mammary cells were deprived of nutrients in order to arrest the cell cycle and de-differentiate them. B. The nucleus from the egg of the donor sheep was fused with the nucleus of the mammary cell in the zygote. C. Dolly was genetically identical to the lamb that was the donor of the egg cell D. Cultured mammary cells were treated with Oct 4, Sox 2, c-Myc and Klf 4 in order to reprogram them. E. all of the above
  4. Professor Shinya Yamanaka of Kyoto University won the 2012 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for the discovery of induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs). These cells ___ A. could possibly be used to treat/cure Type I diabetes B. are made by somatic cell nuclear transfer C. can be made from adult fibroblast cells D. both A and B E. both A and C
  5. On October 7, 2020, The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry to Emmanuelle Charpentier, Max Planck Unit for the Science of Pathogens, Berlin, Germany and Jennifer A. Doudna, University of California, Berkeley, USA “for the development of a method for genome editing.” Key features of CRISPR Cas 9 gene editing include___ A. a single guide RNA (sgRNA) that is comprised of a crRNA, a tracrRNA, and a linker loop B. a nuclease that cuts DNA