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This is exam paper for Cancer Cytogenetic. It was designed by Prof. Akhilesh Kulkarni at Sree Chitra Thirunal Institute of Medical Sciences and Technology. It includes: Hyaluronic, Extracellular, Vervix, Suphate, Cremasteric, Pampinifrom, Plexus, Subcutaneous, Evaporativ, Spernatocyte
Typology: Exams
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Please record your answers on the sheet attached. Keep the exam itself for later reference to the answer key, which will be posted on the web. Late exams will accrue penalties!
A. increasing the water content of the cervix B. decreasing the water content of the cervix C. directly increasing the ratio and concentration of dermatan sulphate D. directly decreasing the ratio of dermatan sulphate E. none of the above
A. decreased risk of testicular cancer occurring B. restoration of fertility C. restoration of normal hormone function D. restoration of normal appearance E. increased probability of detecting testicular cancer
A. the conversion of androgens to estrogens B. cholesterol to testosterone C. testosterone to dihydrotestosterone D. dihydrotestosterone to androstenedione E. estrone to estriol
A. total volume increases by 20%, RBC mass increase exceeding plasma volume increase B. total volume increases by 20%, plasma volume increase exceeding RBC mass increase C. total volume increases by 40%, RBC mass increase exceeding plasma volume increase D. total volume increases by 40%, volume increase exceeding RBC mass increase E. no change in the total blood volume
A. enhancing parasympathetic outflow via reduction of central inhibition B. increasing nitic oxide production in the penile vasculature C. increasing arterial pressure in the corpus cavernosous by vasoconstriction D. inhibiting phosphodiesterase-5 and increasing cGMP E. enhancement of accessory muscle tone
A. spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatogonium, spermatozoa B. spermatogonium, spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatozoa C. spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatogonium, spermatid D. spermatogonium, spermatid, spermatozoa, spermatocyte E. spermatogonium, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
A. Urine sediment examination after masturbation B. Retrograde urethrogram (RUG) C. Nighttime erectile pressure test, "Rigiscan" D. Penile artery scan E. Pelvic ultrasound
The respiratory system response to pregnancy includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. the diaphragm is elevated but has at least the same excursion B. the vital capacity is decreased C. the thoracic cage is pushed up and widened D. the residual volume decreases E. there is a respiratory alkalosis
A varicocoel is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A. increased rate of infertility B. higher incidence in left testicle compared with right C. increased temperatures in the scrotum D. a mass in the scrotum described as "a bag of worms" E. swollen painful testes
The epididymis has all of the following functions EXCEPT: A. sperm maturation B. fluid resorption C. sperm reservoir D. sperm conduit E. sperm capacitation
During pregnancy, which of the following is not true about maternal cardiovascular physiology? A. heart rate increases B. there are ECG changes that may resemble ischemia C. arterial blood pressure increases compared with normal D. venous pressure increases E. new murmurs are common
A. initiate a work-up immediately B. reassure the mother that this could be a variant of normal C. get a karyotype of the mother and father D. begin the daughter on oral contraceptives E. begin the daughter on GnRH agonists
A. increases number of gap junctions in myometrium, but keeps them closed B. decreases number of gap junctions, keeps them closed, and may decrease amount of free Ca++. C. increases gap junctions, keeps them open, and increases amount of free Ca++, D. has no effect on the uterus during pregnancy.
A. microwaves B. ultrasound C. computer terminals D. chronic exposure to 60 Hz fields (ie. power lines, electric blanket, etc) E. none of the above
A. responsible for stimulation of synthesis and release of FSH and LH B. is secreted in a pulsatile fashion C. has a half-life of 2-3 minutes D. has a consistent pulse frequency throughout the menstrual cycle E. has inputs from dopamine, norepinephrine, GABA and opioids
A. cervical mucus becomes scant and thick B. preparation of the endometrium for implantation C. development of breast lobules and alveoli D. rise in basal body temperature E. pigmentation of the areolae
A. endometrial gland proliferation B. decreased ovarian estrogen production C. progesterone dominance D. a fixed length of 8 days E. a reduction in aromatase activity.
A. human chorionic gonadotropin B. progesterone C. FSH D. prolactin E. none of the above
A. FSH B. LH C. estrogen D. progesterone E. none of the above
A. a consequence of pelvic inflammatory disease B. uncontrollable uterine contractions C. an ectopic pregnancy that implanted in the peritoneum D. endometriosis that causes infertility E. intrauterine adhesions often secondary to overly vigorous curettage
A. affected by psychologic stress, anorexia, etc. B. inhibited by endogenous opiates (ie beta-endorphins) C. unaffected by dopamine D. under negative feedback by estrogen, androgens, progesterone, and inhibin
A. Bicarbonate douche B. Intrauterine insemination C. Induction of ovulation D. Operative laparoscopy E. In vitro fertilization
A. B. C. D. E.
they most likely arise from coelomic metaplasia, from the evidence to date they are a frequent cause of infertility they are a common cause of pain during menses they are estrogen sensitive oral contraceptives can be used for treatment
A. B. C. D. E.
should be suspected in teenagers with cyclic menstrual pain may predispose the patient to endometrial adenocarcinoma is the finding of endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium may be diagnosed by CA- is associated with DES exposure in vitro
A. Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH/BSO) B. Laser ablation via laparoscopy C. GnRH agonists D. Continuous oral contraceptives E. Endometrial ablation
A. Decreased risk of osteoporosis B. Elimination of vasomotor symptoms (hot flashes) C. Protection against cardiovascular disease D. Improved epithelization of vaginal mucosa E. Improved sense of well-being
A. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding B. Active thromboembolism C. Breast cancer D. Cervical cancer E. Active liver disease
A. Decreased vaginal lubrication during sex B. Higher circulating estradiol levels C. Low serum FSH D. Increased serum DHEA-sulfate level E. Normal serum LH levels
A. Apoptosis of endocrine cells occurs only in the female B. The secreting cells are intimately tied to the gamete in the female, and lost with the loss of viable oocytes C. Endocrine cells do not divide as often in the male, and thus do not reach senesence D. The ability to produce estrogen from peripheral aromatization of androstenedione suppresses gonadal secretion E. Scarring from successive ovulatory cycles inhibits continued production
A. detecting vaginal atrophy B. administering calcium with estrogen C. performing endometrial biopsy at frequent intervals D. opposing estrogen with progesterone E. down regulating with GnRH
A. HDL B. Triglyceride C. LDL D. Cholesterol E. Lipoprotein
A. Caucasian/Asian heritage B. positive family history C. small build D. alcohol and tobacco use E. weight bearing exercise
A. hot flashes go away with time B. the earlier one enters menopause, the more likely she is to have hot flushes C. the more rapidly menopause occurs, the more likely she is to have hot flushes D. during the symptom, there is no objective temperature change measurable E. symptoms are a result of estrogen withdrawal
A. Prolactin levels fall, allowing dopamine to return to normal levels. B. Continued suckling stimulates oxytocin secretion, preventing implantation C. Sleep deprivation causes cortisol to rise, inhibiting GnRH secretion D. The woman is too tired to participate in sexual activity E. The regeneration of normal uterine size and function is delayed with breast feeding.
A. oral contraceptive B. intrauterine device C. female sterilization D. Depo-Provera E. condom
A. the IUD irritates the lining of the uterus, stimulating endometrial tissue growth up the fallopian tubes B. alteration of embryo targeting C. selection bias - decreased number of intrauterine pregnancies D. scarring from pelvic inflammatory disease causing decreased embryo mobility
A. inhibit ovulation B. decrease local inflammation around the IUD, reducing the risk of ejection C. support secretory endometrium around the IUD to allow a deeper surface in which to anchor D. increase smooth muscle relaxation, reducing the risk of ejection E. force women to purchase new devices each year
A. shape B. size C. string D. shield material E. failure rate
A. ovarian cancer B. endometrial cancer C. vaginosis D. cervical cancer E. vulvar cancer
A. nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio B. metastases C. obstruction of ureters D. extent of local spread E. depth of invasion
A. Cervical biopsy B. Cryotherapy C. Pap smear D. Darkfield examination E. Laser vaporization
A. pulmonary vein B. pulmonary artery C. inferior vena cava D. umbilical artery E. umbilical vein
A. equally derived from maternal and paternal chromosomes B. derived entirely from maternal chromosomes C. entirely derived from paternal chromosomes D. derived from the mature endometrial cell E. variable, depending on whether the mole is complete or partial
A. diploid genome B. paternally dominant genome C. absence of fetal blood vessels D. presence of fetus E. increased incidence in Asian countries
A. Bicornate uterus B. Unicornate uterus C. Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome D. T-shaped uterus E. Uterus didelphis
A. weight gain B. ovarian cancer C. birth defects D. breast cancer E. risk of death to mother
A. 2 birth control pills 12 hours apart B. Douching with ½% acetic acid C. Inserting an IUD 5 days after intercourse D. Ingestion of a cathartic E. None of the above
A. suppression of hypothalamic GNRH B. suppression of pituitary LH and FSH C. induction of an unfavorable cervical mucus which impair sperms transport D. induce anovulation as a result of decreased FSH and LH E. altered tubal mobility
A. dysfunctional uterine bleeding of unknown etiology B. history of coronary artery disease, or previous myocardial ischemia C. active hepatitis D. smokers > 35 yrs of age E. patients with Factor VIII deficiency
All of the following describe neural tube defects EXCEPT: A. encephalocele B. myelomeningocele C. omphalocele D. anencephaly E. spina bifida
All of the following are causes of polyhydramnios EXCEPT: A. tracheoesophageal fistula B. bowel atresia C. anencephaly D. cleft palate E. hydrops fetalis
A. measurement of femur length by ultrasound B. biparietal diameter measuremen by ultrasound C. last menstrual period reported by the mother D. early ultrasound crown-rump measurement E. b-hCG measurement in the 8
th week
A. calcium channel blocker B. beta-adrenergic blocker C. magnesium sulfate D. aspirin E. oxytocin receptor antagonist.
A. increase in bicarbonate and mucus production in the stomach B. cervical ripening C. uterine smooth muscle stimulation D. diarrhea E. all of the above F. A, B, and C only
A. spina bifida B. gastrochisis C. Down syndrome D. twin gestation E. breakage of villi
A. widely to the left B. moderately to the left C. identical D. moderately to the right E. widely to the right
A. decreases maternal mean arterial pressure B. increases uterine blood flow C. stops uterine contractions D. prevents neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage E. prevents eclamptic seizures
Fetal Heart
Intraamniotic Pressure (mmHg)
A 34 year old P1011 at 41 and 5/
Rate (bpm)
totally unremarkable. She was 5 cm dilated on admission, and the electronic fetal monitoring strip was interpreted as completely reassuring. Approximately two hours later the patient was reexamined and was found to be 5cm, 80% effaced, 0 station in the left occiput anterior position. The new fetal monitoring strip is shown above. What is the pattern shown above, and what does it represent? A. early deceleration due to head compression during contractions B. late deceleration due to fetal acidemia C. late deceleration due to fetal hypoxia D. variable deceleration due to cord compression E. variable deceleration due to fetal hypoxia
A. administration of tocolytics B. oxygen administration to mother C. putting the mother in left lateral position D. walking E. discontinuing oxytocin administration, if started.
A. DSPC (Di-saturated phosphatidyl choline) B. TDx-FLM (Fleurescence polarization) C. OD D. L/S (Lecithin/Sphingomyelin) ratio E. Alpha-fetal protein
A. it is hypotonic to serum due to fetal urination B. 1 L of fluid turns over each day C. it normally contains meconium due to fetal bowel movements D. it serves to protect the fetus from injury and temperature changes E. its lipid component is primarily phospholipids such as DPPC
Referring to the figure above diagramming normal labor, identify on the graph the following phases of labor using the following key: A. V to W B. V to Y C. V to Z D. W to X E. W to Y F. W to Z G. Y to Z H. not on graph
Active phase of labor
First stage of labor
All of the following are true about DPPC in surfactant EXCEPT:
A. it is produced by Type I pneumocytes B. its saturated structure decreases the risk of oxidation upon exposure to air C. its saturated structure minimizes its size, allowing more molecules per unit area D. it decreases surface tension at the air lipid interface E. it is a major component of lamellar bodies
A. fetal head station relative to ischial spine B. cervical effacement C. cervical dilation D. cervical consistency (hard vs. soft) E. none of the above
A. hyperthyroidism B. respiratory distress syndrome C. necrotizing enterocolitis D. dehydration E. hyperbilirubinemia