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A series of multiple-choice questions related to the reproductive system, hormones, and fetal development, including the passage of sperm, enzyme conversion, risk factors for prenatal diagnosis, alpha-feto-protein, human papillomavirus (hpv) infection, amenorrhea, energy sources and their effects on the growing fetus, intrauterine devices (iuds), thalidomide, warfarin, rubella, des, placenta, intrapartum fetal assessment, rh sensitization, fetal lung maturity, amniotic fluid, dilation and curettage, post-term pregnancy, maternal cardiovascular physiology, milk production, adenomyosis, semen analysis, premature labor, and hormone levels.
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A. early puberty, hyperactive sex drive B. early puberty, hypoactive sex drive C. late puberty, normal sex drive D. regular puberty, normal sex drive E. no puberty, no sex drive
A. decreased risk of testicular cancer B. decreased risk of prostate cancer C. increased risk of prostate cancer D. increased risk of testicular cancer E. unchanged risk of either prostate or testicular cancer
A. rete testis, seminiferous tubules, epidydimis, vas deferens B. semiferous tubules, rete testis, epidydimis, vas deferens C. epidydimis, vas deferens, rete testis, seminiferous tubules D. rete testis, epidydimis, vas deferens, seminiferous tubules E. seminiferous tubules, epidydimis, vas deferens, rete testis
A. the conversion of androgens to estrogens B. cholesterol to testosterone C. testosterone to dihydrotestosterone D. dihydrotestosterone to androstenedione E. estrone to estriol
A. maternal age >35 yrs B. family hx of neural tube defects C. history of two previous miscarriages D. family history of chromosome abnormality E. either parent with balanced translocation carrier
A. has a known function in the fetus B. can first be detected in maternal serum at 15-17 weeks C. Decreased AFP levels associated with trisomy 21, trisomy 18, IUGR (intrauterine grown retardation), and incorrect dating D. first detectable in the fetus by 4 wks gestation E. neural tube defects, multiple pregnancy, abdominal wall defects, and incorrect dating are associated with elevated levels.
A. use of DES when mother was in utero B. use of tobacco while pregnant C. listening to classic rock D. use of alcohol while pregnant E. maternal age >35 yrs at time of pregnancy
A. excess cost for the delivery B. Damage due to shear stress caused by compression of the head C. Damage due to shear stress caused by rotation of the fetal head D. Soft tissue injury
A. near the right utero-ovarian artery anatomosis B. In the cervix C. At the fundus of the uterus D. At the post synaptic ganglion know as Frankenhauser’s Ganglion
A. Phase of maximum slope B. Latent phase C. Second stage D. Third stage E. Active phase
A. primary amenorrhea B. secondary amenorrhea C. tertiary amenorrhea D. no problem with menses E. none of the above
A. alters the hypothalamic GNRH pulse generator B. inhibits LH and FSH release by pituitary C. interacts with arcuate nucleus to increase prolactin and decrease GNRH D. decreases ability to convert dihydroandrostenedione to testosterone
A. increased glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoid B. increased niineralocorticoids and decreased glucocorticoids. C. normal adrenal steroid levels D. decreased progesterone and 17-hydroxyprogesterone F. decreased adrenal steroids and increased progesterone and 17,OH- progesterone
A. obesity is a common, but not universal characteristic of patients of PCO B. LH tends to be decreased and FSH increased C. is characterized by increased insulin resistance D. abnormality of ovarian androgen secretion E. clomiphene citrate (an anti-estrogen) is a common treatment
A. heat shock proteins B. transport proteins C. heat-labile proteins E. structural proteins
A. 102 degrees F and 36 hrs B. 101 degrees F and 52 hrs C 100 degrees F and 7 days
D. 101.5 degrees F and 48 hrs E. 103 degrees and 10 hrs
A. microwaves B. ultrasound C. computer terminals D. chronic exposure to 60 Hz fields (ie. power lines, electric blanket, etc) E. none of the above
Ionizing radiation at doses of 100-200 RADs have been shown to be dangerous to the fetus within the first 41 days of life (days 9-41 is the period of organogensis). Doses used in medicine for various methods of imaging are mostly in the MRAD to 1-2 RAD range (much less than the 100- RAD level. Practicing physicians try to stay under what RAD exposure to the fetus per pregnancy? A 50 RAD B 25 RAD C. 10 RAD D. 2 RAD F. 500 MRAD
The adverse affects of using an IUD for contraception include uterine pregnancy, ectopic pregnancy, and pelvic inflammatory disease. The normal risk of ectopic pregnancy in the population is 1/100 pregnancies. With the IUD, the risk increases to:
A. DALKON shield B. progestasert IUD C. Lippes loop D. copper-T IUD E. Oral Contraceptives
A. measurement of femur length B. biparietal diameter measurement C. joint space measurement D. early crown-rump measurement E. length of spine measurement
A. 18 wks gestation B. 16 wks gestation C. 14 wks gestation D. 12 wks gestation E. 6 wks gestation
A. respiratory movements B. symmetrical movements of upper and lower extremities C. overall limb activity D. muscle tone E. amount of amniotic fluid
A. abruptio placenta B. growth retardation C. pre-term delivery D. limb deficiency and bowel atresia E. Down's syndrome
A. polymorphisms of alcohol dehydrogenase confer greater susceptibility to teratogenic effect. B. alcohol does not cross the placenta - its metabolic products are the culprits C. polymorphisms of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase produce increased tolerance for alcohol. D. the dose-response relationship of alcohol and adverse outcome is not well established.
A. thalidomide: 34-50 days post-LMP B. warfarin: 7 to 8 weeks C. rubella: 20-60 days post LMP D. DES: less than 24 weeks gestation
A. separates the endometrium and myometrium during pregnancy B. separates chorion frondosum from the synctiotrophoblast C. separates syncitiotrophoblast from the endometrium D. separates amniotic sac from the cytotrophoblast
A. placenta averages about 500 g at term B. the placenta rarely is delivered in one piece C. placenta needs to come out after birth D. the uterus needs to contract to minimize blood lose from spiral arteries E. about 1/2 of the fetal blood volume lies in the placenta
A. utero-placental insufficiency B. decreased oxygen delivery to the fetus C. cord compression D. all of the above E. A and B only
A. decreased cortical function B. decreased oxygen delivery to the fetal heart C. increased delivery of oxygen to maternal brain D. none of the above
A. protection of the fetus from direct injury B. maintenance of fetal temperature C. allows free movements of the fetus D. fluid reservoir for fetal fluid exchange E. buffer the fetus from maternal toxins
A. maternal antibody directed against fetal ABO grouping B. maternal IgG against fetal D antigens which crosses placenta and induces fetal hemolysis C. fetal antibodies against maternal D antigens inducing self-hemolysis D. mechanism is unknown
A. hypertension, either chronic or pregnancy induced B. history of or current hepatitis C. maternal overeating during pregnancy D. taking anti-convulsants during pregnancy
A. the arteries collapse, the vein does not B. neither the arteries nor the vein collapses C. the vein dilates resulting in increased venous return D. just one artery and the single vein collapses
A. uterine blood flow increases by 500 ml/min B. there are ECG changes that may resemble ischemia due to positional changes of the heart in the chest cavity C. heart rate increases from an average of 70--> D. blood flow to skin increases 300-400 ml/min E. blood flow to brain increases 150-250 ml/min
A. renal function remains unchanged, since there is great renal reserve for the increased blood flow B. Creatinine, hematocrit, and the BLTN all fall during pregnancy C. GFR falls during pregnancy D. renal plasma flow falls by .5 to 1 ml/min
A. develop at 6-8 weeks of embryonic life B. nipple has 50-75 lactiferous ducts which fuse to 5-8 openings C. breast stroma contains fat, connective tissue, and muscle D. the "milk line" is from the axilla down the anterior chest to the groin E. milk ducts develop at birth
A. estrogen B. insulin C. growth hormone D. progesterone E. prolactin
A. no stimulus like suckling B. increased estrogen from placenta inhibits milk production C. elevated dopamine levels during pregnancy from placenta D. none of the above
A. I day B. I week C. 4-6 weeks D. 24 weeks
A. Atrial septa defect B. corrected Tetralogy of Fallot C. Eisenmenger's syndrome D. Patent ductus arteriosus
A. macrosomia B. hypoglycemia (esp within the first day of delivery) C. congenital anomalies D. respiratory distress syndrome E. all of the above
A. they feel short of breath because they are always somewhat hypoxic B. from a progesterone effect which results in tachypnea C. from the increased cardiac output and decreased capillary transit time D. because of congestive heart failure in patients that can't increase their cardiac output
A. increased glucose intake B. from high GFR C. fetal glucose production D. estrogen effect during pregnancy E. none of the above
A. DSPC (Di-saturated phosphatidyl choline) B. FLM (Fetal lung maturity test) C. Amniotic fluid creatinine D. L/S (Lecithin/Sphingomyelin) ratio E. Alpha-fetal protein
A. The corpus of the uterus B. The cervix C. The ovary D. The inferior vena cava E. The abdominal wall
A. posterior to the uterus running in the cul-de-sac B. 1-2 cm lateral to the edge of the cervix at the level of the uterine arteries C. anterior to the uterine artery D. Indenting the left ovarian artery 3 cm distal to the ligament of Jacob E. Entering the bladder at the hilus
A. Soy protein B. Digitalis C. DES D. Spironolactone E. Gumma root extract
A. A cystadenoma B. Mucoid material C. Endometriosis D. Vaginal adenosis E. Endometrial dysplasia
A. testicular failure B. semen disorders C. varicocele D. idiopathic
A. concentration per cc B. initial motility C. morphology D. all of the above
A. age B. thyroid disease C. diabetes D. prolactin disorders E. androgen disorders
D. none of the above
A. testosterone and dihydroandrostenedione B. dihydroandrostenedione and testes related factor C. estrogen and testosterone D. Mullerian Inhibiting factor and testosterone E. Mullerian Inhibiting factor and testes related factor
A. 2-3 weeks B. 6-7 weeks C. 15-18 weeks D. 27-30 weeks
A. FSH and LH increase (FSH > 40 mIU/cc) B. decreased estrogen C. no more ovulation from ovaries D. menopausal symptoms occur largely from estrogen withdrawal E. ovaries are endocrinologically inactive
A. progesterone B. estrogen C. FSH D. PRL E. none of the above
F. the initial signal for labor remains yet unknown.
A. past history of preterm delivery B. cervical trauma (D&C, cone biopsy) C. uterine anomaly D. age <20, or >40 years. E. all of the above
A. beta-2-mimetics and magnesium B. alpha-2 agonizes and manganese C. beta-I antagonists and mulberry seeds D. beta-4 antagonists and metallica
A. most patients perceive about 50% of all of their contractions B. oxytocin receptors increase in pregnancy C. Prostaglandins certainly play a role in labor D. RU486 (progesterone antagonist) increases spontaneous uterine contractions and amplifies the effect of Prostaglandins.
E. post-menopausal women with ovaries that are hormonally inactive can still carry a pregnancy to term.
A. FSH B. LH C. estrogen D. progesterone E. none of the above
A. heart rate B. respiratory effort C. muscle tone D. newborn reflexes E. skin color and irritability
E. none of the above
Primary carcinomas of the vagina are largely epidermoid (around 75%), and the peak age of women with the disease is between age 60 and 70. However, young women (ages 15-35) exposed to this agent in utero may have an increased incidence of clear-cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina: A. MIH B. TDF C. SRY D. DES
Currently one of the most promising areas for investigation into the etiology of PIH
A. Aldosterone metabolism B. Nitric oxide C. Sodium intake during pregnancy D. Calcium ingestion E. Magnesium sulfate
A. estrogen B. testosterone C. progesterone D. androstenedione
A. decrease HDL levels B. increase LDL levels C. increase HDL levels D. decrease LDL levels E. none of the above