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Environmental Science Exam 100 multiple-choice questions, Exams of Environmental Science

The APES exam comprises two question types, MCQs and FRQs. These might come as a standalone question or sets, and may be accompanied by informative visuals. These may be tricky, so, let’s explore each question type.

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AP® Environmental
Science Exam
SECTION I: Multiple Choice 2016
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
At a Glance
Total
Time
1 hour, 30 minutes
Number
of Questions
100
Percent
of
Total Score
60%
Writing Instrument
Pencil required
Instructions
Section I of this exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only the circles for
numbers 1 through 100 on your answer sheet.
Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet. No
credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet
for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested answers is best,
completely fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Give only one answer to
each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous mark is erased
completely. Here is a sample question and answer.
Electronic Device
None allowed
Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not
spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to
the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will
know the answers to all of the multiple-choice questions.
Your total score on the multiple-choice section is based only on the number of questions
answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered
questions.
Form O
Form Code 4MBP
40
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AP

®

Environmental Science Exam

SECTION I: Multiple Choice 2016

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

At a Glance Total Time 1 hour, 30 minutes Number of Questions 100 Percent of Total Score 60% Writing Instrument Pencil required

Instructions

Section I of this exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only the circles for numbers 1 through 100 on your answer sheet. Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet. No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested answers is best, completely fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Give only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question and answer. Electronic Device None allowed Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will know the answers to all of the multiple-choice questions. Your total score on the multiple-choice section is based only on the number of questions answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered questions.

Form O

Form Code 4MBP

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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

Section I Time—1 hour and 30 minutes Part A Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered questions or statements immediately following it. Select the one lettered choice that best answers each question or best fits each statement and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set. Questions 1-4 refer to the following list of pollutants. (A) Radon (B) Mercury (C) Lead (D) Copper (E) Iron

  1. Was once widely used in the United States as a gasoline additive
  2. A gaseous decay product of uranium that is found in rocks
  3. A leading cause of lung cancer in the United States
  4. Poses a health risk to humans who eat large quantities of marine fish such as swordfish and tuna Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. (^) GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -5- Questions 10-12 refer to the lettered areas of the map below.

  1. Area that exhibits island arcs
  2. Area that exhibits a growing nonvolcanic mountain chain due to uplift
  3. Area where new crust is being created at a divergent plate boundary Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. (^) GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -6- Questions 13-14 refer to the following climatographs. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

  1. Which environment is characterized by the highest diversity of tree species?
    1. Which environment is most likely to be characterized by dry scrub with frequent fires? Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -8- Part B Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

  1. The Sun’s radiation provides the energy for all of the following EXCEPT (A) plant growth (B) ocean currents (C) hurricanes (D) plate tectonics (E) cloud formation
  2. Phytoplankton are most abundant in the upper few hundred feet of most bodies of water because (A) they can most readily hide from predators there (B) sunlight does not penetrate to great depths in water (C) as primary producers, they must be accessible to many other organisms (D) they are benthic organisms (E) they feed on zooplankton, which are found only in the top layers of water
  3. Catalytic converters reduce which of the following pairs of pollutants in car exhaust? (A) Carbon dioxide and ozone (B) Carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons (C) Carbon dioxide and particulates (D) Lead and mercury (E) Methane and particulates
  4. Which of the following accurately describes a fuel cell vehicle? (A) Fuel cell vehicles run on both an internal combustion engine and a backup battery. (B) Fuel cell vehicles are able to convert waste oil from the food industry into ethanol, which is burned as a source of power. (C) Fuel cell vehicles use hydrogen to generate electricity that runs the motor. (D) Fuel cell vehicles generate energy by creating a flow of electrons in a semiconducting material such as silicon. (E) Fuel cell vehicles use methane to heat water, which creates steam that turns a turbine to generate electricity. 21. Long-term intensive agriculture that does not add soil amendments such as manure or fertilizer has been shown to decrease soil organic matter content. Which of the following figures best shows this relationship? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. (^) GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -9- Questions 22-23 refer to the soil composition diagram below.

  1. What are the proportions of sand, silt, and clay for the soil at point T? % Sand % Silt % Clay (A) 75 20 5 (B) 70 20 10 (C) 65 25 10 (D) 60 30 10 (E) 55 30 15
  2. Which soil composition would be the best choice for lining a landfill? (A) Point T (B) Point U (C) Point V (D) Point W (E) Point X Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. (^) GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -11- Questions 29-30 refer to the following graph.

  1. At which time after clear-cutting does the ecosystem exhibit the greatest species richness? (A) 50 years (B) 100 years (C) 150 years (D) 200 years (E) 250 years
    1. Which tree species grows best with full sunlight? (A) White oak (B) Hickory (C) Dogwood (D) Sweet gum (E) Beech Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

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  1. Most deserts on Earth are located near the 30 q north and 30q south latitudes because humidity is lower at 30q. The best explanation for the lower humidity is that (A) warm air rises at 90° latitude, cools, and sinks at 30° (B) cool air rises at 30° latitude, warms, and sinks at the equator (C) warm air rises at the equator, cools, and sinks at 30° latitude (D) trade winds transfer moisture away from 30° latitude (E) rain-shadow effects are most pronounced at 30° latitude
  2. Many homeowners are unaware that their garbage may contain hazardous waste, which should be taken to a designated hazardous waste dump site instead of being placed in their regular trash. All of the following are considered household hazardous waste EXCEPT (A) batteries (B) bug spray (C) motor oil (D) oil-based paint (E) food scraps
  3. Which of the following is a reason why hybrid electric vehicles use less fossil fuel per mile traveled than a typical internal combustion engine vehicle uses? (A) Hybrid electric vehicles don’t burn fossil fuels; they run on electric energy. (B) Hybrid electric vehicles are powered by the Sun using rooftop photovoltaic panels. (C) When the brakes are applied in hybrid electric vehicles, kinetic energy is converted into electric energy to charge the batteries that assist the electric motor. (D) Batteries in hybrid electric vehicles can be charged in the driveway overnight, when rates for electricity usage are typically low. (E) The engines in hybrid electric vehicles are powered by biofuels made from genetically modified corn. 34. For which of the following reasons do small isolated islands have a greater rate of species extinction than larger, less isolated islands? (A) Small isolated islands are more likely to receive more migrating species. (B) Small isolated islands provide opportunities for a greater diversity of species. (C) Because of their size, small isolated islands accumulate more species by chance. (D) Small isolated islands have a lower availability of resources. (E) Because they have fewer available niches, small isolated islands are targeted and colonized by species. 35. In the graph below charting the growth of a population of organisms, the line labeled K represents the (A) biotic potential of the organism (B) doubling time of the population in the environment (C) carrying capacity of the population (D) reproductive lag time of the organism (E) intrinsic rate of increase of the population in the environment Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. (^) GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -14- Questions 37-39 refer to the graph. Glyphosates are herbicides that are often applied to genetically modified (GM) crops to kill weeds without harming the crop itself.

  1. Which of the following statements best explains the relationship shown on the graph? (A) Increased use of glyphosate herbicides kills more weeds and thus leads to higher crop yields. (B) The use of glyphosate herbicides has decreased because it has been shown to be ineffective in killing weeds. (C) The use of glyphosate has selected for herbicide resistance in weed populations. (D) The use of glyphosate herbicides has decreased because the cost of the herbicides has increased. (E) Increased use of glyphosate herbicides correlates to increased agricultural profit. 38. Which of the following statements identifies a concern associated with the increased proportion of GM crops being grown? (A) Planting GM crops results in reduced crop yield, which causes more land to be put into production. (B) Use of GM seeds can lead to loss of genetic diversity in crops. (C) GM crops cannot be grown in marginal soils. (D) Runoff from GM crop fields can lead to increased eutrophication. (E) GM crops cannot withstand herbicide application, reducing crop yield. Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

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  1. Some studies have indicated that global amphibian populations are declining and that exposure to herbicides in agricultural runoff is implicated in the decline. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of how herbicides affect amphibians? (A) The herbicides are fat soluble and accumulate in groundwater. (B) The herbicides act as a plant nutrient, causing algal blooms. (C) The herbicides act as endocrine disruptors. (D) The herbicides are ingested by amphibians that mistake them for food. (E) The herbicides contain heavy metals.
  2. Which of the following is the most valid inference regarding electricity production, based on the graph above? (A) Electricity production from coal began to decrease in 2008 because of shortages in coal supplies. (B) Electricity production from coal began to decrease in 2008 because of the increasing use of natural gas and renewable energy. (C) The use of nuclear energy increased from 1970 to 2010 because of the low cost of constructing nuclear power plants. (D) The use of nuclear energy increased from 1970 to 2010 because of shortages in coal supplies. (E) Renewable energy has not increased as much as nuclear energy has since 1970 because of federal laws restricting construction of wind farms. Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

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WATER QUALITY DATA FOR AN ILLINOIS STREAM

Site Water Temperature (qC) Forest Canopy (% shaded) Turbidity (NTU for 24 hr) Total Dissolved Solids (mg/L) pH Hardness (ppm) A 20 35 10 220 7.2 85. B 15 80 8 220 7.2 85. C 22 70 100 2,000 7.0 86. D 15 80 2 220 7.1 84. E 15 90 30 800 4.0 150.

  1. Based on the data table above for a stream in Illinois, which site most likely has a construction site immediately upstream from it? (A) Site A (B) Site B (C) Site C (D) Site D (E) Site E
    1. Corn can be grown at a rate of 1,000 kcal per hectare, and it takes 20 times more land to produce beef than it does to produce corn. Which of the following equations would correctly calculate the amount of land needed to produce 10,000 kcal of beef? (A)

20 ha

10,000 kcal corn 100 ha

kcal beef

(B)

1 ha 20 kcal corn

10,000 kcal beef

1,000 kcal corn 1 kcal beef

(C)

20 kcal beef 10,000 kcal 20 beef

1 kcal corn 10 ha 1 corn

(D)

20 ha 1,000 kcal corn

1,000 kcal beef 1 ha

(E)

10 ha 10,000 cal corn 1 ha corn

10,000 kcal beef 1 ha 20 ha beef

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  1. Which of the following is considered an advantage of using nuclear power to generate electricity? (A) No waste is generated. (B) There is a limitless supply of the raw material needed for the process of generating energy. (C) Nuclear power plants are inexpensive to build and maintain. (D) There is no potential for thermal pollution. (E) There is no CO 2 emitted from the nuclear reaction.
  2. The presence of which of the following in soil is most likely to neutralize acid rain? (A) Limestone (B) Granite (C) Sand (D) Radon (E) Humus
  3. The world population growth rate in 2015 is about 1 percent. It is expected to drop to 0.5 percent by 2050, partly because of increased access to birth control in developing nations. Another likely cause for the expected decline is (A) a decrease in the spread of pandemic diseases like Ebola (B) an increase in the total fertility rate in developed nations (C) an increased global food supply as a result of climate change (D) increasing numbers of women entering the workforce in developing nations (E) medical advances that will increase the life spans of people in developing nations 47. Brown pelicans are fish-eating birds. As a result of an El Niño event, the population of brown pelicans in southern California declines. Which of the following best explains the relationship between the El Niño event and the population decline? (A) Warmer ocean temperatures can cause fish to move to colder water farther from pelican nest sites. (B) Lower sea surface heights can result in pelican nest sites being isolated too far from their food supply in the ocean. (C) The female reproductive tract of birds does not function at the lower water temperatures of El Niño. (D) Male pelicans get disoriented due to the lack of moisture and fail to return to the nest with food. (E) Predatory seal populations increase dramatically due to decreased rainfall. 48. Open oceans produce the largest share of Earth’s biomass because the net primary productivity (NPP) of the oceans is (A) high and thus can support a high proportion of producers (B) high as a result of the high concentration of nutrients in the open oceans (C) low, but the large expanse of the oceans supports enormous numbers of producers such as phytoplankton (D) low, but the individual producers found there are huge in size (E) low, but still higher than that of other ecosystems of the world Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -20- Questions 52- A new 450-unit housing development will replace several small farms on the outskirts of Fremont. The development will be composed of 1/4-hectare lots with nearly identical footprints, as show below.

  1. Which of the following will be the greatest impact of the development on the local water supply? (A) There will be less recharge of groundwater. (B) There will be less runoff to fill reservoirs. (C) There will be higher humidity in the suburb. (D) There will be decreased soil exposure, reducing bacteria loads in surface water. (E) There will be decreased erosion in local streams. 53. Storm water runoff from the new development into nearby Samel Creek will likely lead to which of the following? (A) Biomagnification of mercury in birds of prey such as eagles and osprey (B) Improved recreational opportunities for swimmers and boaters (C) Destruction of fish habitats by high levels of suspended solids and sediments (D) Contamination of drinking water supplies by volatile organic compounds such as ozone (E) Increased incidence of waterborne diseases such as malaria 54. One important step that homeowners in the new development can take to protect water quality in Samel Creek would be to (A) apply lawn fertilizers immediately before storm events (B) channelize Samel Creek to improve water flow during storm events (C) use only persistent organic pesticides to control weed species in their lawns (D) make certain that pet waste is disposed of directly into storm drains (E) use rain barrels to reduce the flow of storm water into the creek Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by:

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  1. The table below shows measurements of the beak size of a sample of ten ground finches on each of two islands in the Galápagos archipelago. The two islands are about ten kilometers apart, and all the birds are the same species. Given that beak size is genetically determined, which of the following hypotheses is the most likely explanation for the differences in data between the islands? Daphne Island Beak Size (mm) Santa Cruz Island Beak Size (mm) 9.55 10. 8.70 9. 9.62 10. 9.22 9. 8.79 10. 9.61 10. 9.02 10. 7.85 10. 9.01 10. 8.26 10. (A) Egg mortality differs on the islands. (B) Beak size exerts selective pressure on prey size. (C) Birds on Daphne Island live longer than birds on Santa Cruz Island. (D) Large-beaked birds move to Santa Cruz Island and small-beaked birds move to Daphne Island. (E) The types of food found on the two islands exert selective pressure on beak size.
  2. A family of five recently replaced its 5-gallon-per-minute showerheads with water-saving 2-gallon-per-minute showerheads. Each member of the family averages 8 minutes in the shower per day. In a 30-day period, how many fewer gallons of water will the family use with the new showerheads? (A) 60 (B) 800 (C) 2, (D) 3, (E) 7,
    1. Hydraulic fracturing, or fracking, is the pumping of highly pressurized water with a mixture of sand and chemicals into boreholes to (A) create cracks within the rock in order to provide pathways for the release of gas and oil (B) pulverize the rock in order to let gas and oil rise through the soil horizons (C) reopen old mine shafts, from which gas and oil can be collected (D) create seismic movement and artificial earthquakes in order to liberate gas and oil (E) supersaturate the rock with the fracking fluid, which scrubs gas and oil from the rock by abrasion
    2. Which of the following describes the changes in a country’s demographics as it begins its transition from a preindustrial state to an industrial state? (A) Population increases rapidly, birth rate declines, death rate increases (B) Population increases rapidly, birth rate declines, death rate remains high (C) Population decreases rapidly, birth rate declines, death rate decreases (D) Population decreases rapidly, birth rate remains high, death rate increases (E) Population increases rapidly, birth rate remains high, death rate decreases
    3. All of the following are negative externalities EXCEPT (A) illnesses related to living near a manufacturing facility (B) noise associated with living near a major airport (C) air pollution caused by refinery emissions (D) bees pollinating vegetables in addition to creating honey (E) damage to crops from automobile exhaust Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited ExclusiveSAT.com Obtain More SAT, AP & Other Tests on: SATGRANDMASTER EXCLUSIVESATMATERIALS ALLSATPAPERS Single-Person Usage Purchase by: