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P2 - Answer Pollution Prevention, the highest priority is source reduction, the most effective P2 activity is product modification to avoid solvent use PDCA - Answer Plan, Do, Check, Act (P2) HAP - Answer Hazardous Air Pollutant MACT - Answer Maximum Achievable Control Technology TSDF - Answer Transport, Storage, Disposal Facility, is required to have a waste tracking program, a training plan, arrangements with emergency responders, an employee onsite at all times NPDES - Answer National Pollution Discharge Elimination System SWPPPs - Answer Stormwater pollution prevention plans Waste Management Hierarchy - Answer 1. Prevent or reduce 2. Recycle 3. Treat 4. Dispose or otherwise release AEA - Answer Atomic Energy Act RCRA - Answer Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, covers generation of haz waste, transportation of haz waste, USTs, and non-haz solid waste ALARA - Answer As Low As Reasonably Achievable (AEA) LDRs - Answer Land Disposal Restriction (RCRA), meant to minimize post-closure escape of waste, reduces the volume of haz waste disposal, encourages recycling MTRs - Answer Minimum Technology Requirements (RCRA), including liner requirements, leak detection and collection requirements, groundwater monitoring CAMU - Answer Corrective Action Management Unit (RCRA), needs to assess environmental and health risks, if it will enhance the timeliness of remediation, will minimize the land utilized for final disposal, will provide expeditious implementation of site remedies TU - Answer Temporary Unit (RCRA)
RI - Answer Remedial Investigation CMS - Answer Corrective Measures Study (RCRA) IM - Answer Interim Measures RFI - Answer RCRA Facility Investigation SWMU - Answer Solid Waste Management Unit (RCRA) HSWA - Answer Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments (expanded RCRA) CA - Answer Corrective Action (HSWA), requires identification of all SWMUs on a site before issuance of a Part B permit, a comprehensive groundwater monitoring program, can require clean-ups outside a facilities boundary, provide for temporary treatment units, has an additional section in a final permit requiring further site clean- ups Used Oil - Answer Arsenic (5 ppm max), Cadmium (2 ppm max), Chromium (10ppm max), Lead (100 ppm max), Total Halogens (4000 ppm max), Flash point (100oF minimum) NIOSH - Answer National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health, conducts research in occupational safety and health, develop criteria as a basis for new standards, provides education, manpower development and training on health and safety equipment, enforces occupational health and safety guidelines. TLV - Answer Threshold Limit Value Ceiling Value - Answer An absolute value which cannot be exceeded (no TWA) Nucleus - Answer The center of an atom made up of a proton and a neutron Ionization - Answer the removal of electrons from an electrically neutral atom TDS - Answer Time, Distance, Shielding (ways to reduce exposure to radiation) Alpha particle - Answer Slowest, largest radioactive particle. Most destructive if inhaled or ingested. Can be stopped by paper/tyvek. Made up of a proton and neutron. Beta particle - Answer Can be stopped by plastic/aluminum foil. Can travel up to four feet from source. Made up of an electron. Half-lives to get to 12.5% of original radionuclide - Answer Three. 100 (one) 50 (two) 25 (three) 12. Toxin - Answer any substance that will produce a harmful effect when introduced to the body in sufficient concentrations, creates a toxic effect when a mechanism is available to allow a biochemical reaction at a receptor site in the target organ
Pumping/slug testing - Answer Estimates hydraulic conductivity DNAPL - Answer Dense Non-Aqueous Phase Liquid. Includes chlorinated solvents and long-chain hydrocarbons (heavy oils/asphalts), DNAPLs do not adhere to soil particles LNAPL - Answer Light Non-Aqueous Phase Liquid, Short chain hydrocarbons including gasoline. NAPLs adhere to soil particles CERCLA - Answer Comprehensive Environmental Restoration Compensation and Liability Act. Established "Hazardous Substances" and covers sites not covered by existing laws, except facilities and vessels, does not apply to active sites, requires that actions meet standards of other laws and regulations SARA - Answer Superfund Amendments and Re-authorization Act (1986) CERCLA Section 102 - Answer Lists "Hazardous Substances" CERCLA Section 107 - Answer Imposes "strict" and "joint and several" liability to all generators, transporters and facility owners. Does not require showing of fault or negligence where damages have occurred. Full damages may be recovered from one, some or all potentially liable parties. FWPCA - Answer Federal Water Pollution Control Act (1972) Phase II storm water requirements - Answer Apply to discharges from MS4s serving fewer than 10,000 people CWA Title III - Answer Established water quality criteria, requires assessment of watersheds, established the NPDES program, requires point source compliance with treatment technologies Receiving water quality criteria - Answer TMDLs, Turbidity, pH, Bioassay TMDL - Answer Total Maximum Daily Load, CWA Section 303 CWA - Answer Clean Water Act 404 Permits - Answer Dredge and Fill Permits administered by the Army Corp of Engineers CWA 303d - Answer A list of impaired waters Stormwater pollutants - Answer Oil and grease, BOD, COD, and TSS Stormwater permit sampling - Answer Includes grab sampling, pH and temp of the sample, rainfall measurements, record of the date and duration of the sampling
Stormwater permit holder - Answer Required to prepare and implement a stormwater pollution prevention plan, form a pollution prevention team, create pollution prevention measures, and use Best Management Practices (BMPs) FRP - Answer Facility response plan, necessary for facility with oil storage in excess of 1,000,000 gallons, requires drills and tabletop exercises, plans for Worst Case Discharges (WCDs), and training for employees on the FRP SPCC - Answer Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure Plans, required for facilities with more than 1320 gallons of above ground oil storage or 40,000 gallons of below ground storage, must be reviewed every five years, must be sealed by a PE unless it is a "Qualified Facility" with less than 10,000 gallons of oil storage SERC - Answer State Emergency Response Commission LEPC - Answer Local Emergency Planning Committee TRI - Answer Toxic Chemical Release Inventory, required for facilities manufacturing, mining, and utilities that manufacture or process over 25,000 pounds or "otherwise use" over the threshold planning quantity of extremely hazardous substances EPCRA - Answer Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act Tier II Report - Answer Required under EPCRA for a facility that has 10,000 pounds of any hazardous chemical ISO 14001 - Answer Requires core elements such as a management review, policy, checking, and corrective actions AAI - Answer All Appropriate Inquiries, must update government records or visual inspections after 180 days, requires that the environmental professional sign the report, provide an opinion regarding site conditions, review historical records, and provide professional qualifications Phase II ESA - Answer Invasive evaluation of potential RECs Specification packaging - Answer Required for the transportation of hazardous materials Trade exemption - Answer Allows private carriers to transport hazardous materials if individual packages do not exceed 8 gallons or 66 pounds Periodic group - Answer On the periodic table, a set of elements that act the same chemically. Eg. Noble Gases, Halide series Reduction - Answer gaining electrons Oxidation - Answer losing electrons
PCB cleanup - Answer spills to grazing land or vegetable gardens are subject to standards at the discretion of the regional office, limited to spills after May 4, 1987, disposal options are based on the current measured concentrations New major air emissions in an attainment area - Answer Requires New Source Performance Standards, BACT, Title V Operating Permit New Source Review - Answer Required for a new facility or a modified existing facility (>10%) Federal regulation amendments - Answer can be found in the Federal Register but are easiest to find on the Agencies website or from a regulation tracking service Interim Status - Answer In RCRA, a facility that predates RCRA but is pursuing a RCRA permit FFCA - Answer Federal Facilities Compliance Act (1992), provided a statutory basis for pursuing monetary penalties against Federal Facilities HSWA - Answer Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments (RCRA) included hazardous waste used as fuel, financial responsibility, Minimum Technology Requirements (MTRs), and air emissions from TSDFs Characteristic Waste - Answer Reactive, Corrosive, Ignitable, Toxic Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest - Answer Includes the EPA ID number, the name of the primary transporter, the names of backup transporters, an ER number that must be answered 24/7, the name and address of the generator, the signature of the generator or an agent Land Disposal Notification - Answer Accompanies the waste shipment to a TSDF and includes an analysis of the ability to meet treatment standards Rulemaking process - Answer 1. Congress enacts a law 2. Agency establishes a rulemaking schedule 3. Agency establishes a docket 4. Develop a concept for regulation 5. Publish proposed regulation in Fed Reg 6. Public hearing 7. Withdraw, make minor revisions or publish final regulation Ways to reference a law - Answer 1. Short title (eg TSCA) 2. Public law citation (eg. PL 101-459 = 549th law of the 101 Congress) 3. United State Code (USC) (eg. 42USC§7402) CDI averaging time - Answer 70 years CDI - Answer Chronic Daily Intake Stormwater discharge application - Answer Part A- Who and what Part B- Where and how much
EPCRA hazard categories - Answer Immediate (acute) health hazards, delayed (chronic) health hazards, and sudden releases of pressure EPCRA Tier II reporting - Answer Chemical inventory forms including chemical names and CAS numbers Emergency response not required - Answer When the release results in exposure to persons solely within the boundaries of the facility TPQ - Answer Threshold Planning Quantity, two values are listed, the first applies to materials with higher hazard properties and the second applies to lower hazard properties (40CFR355.30), the TPQ when equaled or exceeded subjects the facility to regulation under EPCRA SPL - Answer Sound Pressure Level, unweighted SPL(total) = 10 log [ sum 10 (SPL/10)] or weighted SPL (total) = 10 log [sum 10 (SPL/10) (t(partial)/t(total)] LOD - Answer Limit of Detection, Should be at least 25% of the TLV for a air monitoring device to be acceptable for use HI - Answer Hazard Index, HI= CDI/RfD HI<1 is acceptable RfD - Answer Reference Dose, RfD= NOAEL(or LOAEL)/(UF)(MF) NOAEL= No observable adverse effect level UF= Uncertainty Factor MF=(Modifying Factors NOAEL - Answer No observable adverse effect level PA/SI - Answer Preliminary Assessment/ Site Inspection RI/FS - Answer Remedial Investigation/ Feasibility Study ROD - Answer Record of Decision RD/RA - Answer Remedial Design/ Remedial Action NPL - Answer National Priorities List, Superfund Nitric Oxide - Answer Nitric oxide exists in equilibrium with nitrogen tetroxide in the ambient atmosphere, is colorless, is a dissociation product of nitrogen trioxide and is an irritant of the eyes and mucous membranes Polyvinyl alcohol - Answer PVA, A material used in PPE, very effective against hydrocarbons but dissolves in water
NA - Answer Non-attainment LAER - Answer Lowest Achievable Emission Rate BACT - Answer Best Available Control Technology MACT - Answer Maximum Achievable Control Technology RACT - Answer Reasonable Achievable Control Technology Air monitoring for methane and hydrogen sulfide - Answer Should be performed at the bottom and top of a space because methane is lighter than air and hydrogen sulfide is heavier than air Required controls for a major facility modification - Answer BACT- in attainment areas LAER- in non-attainment areas MACT - for HAPs What training is required for a permit required confined space entry? - Answer Confined space, HAZWOPER, respirator training NFPA Life Safety Code - Answer covers building services and fire protection equipment FIFRA registration - Answer Only pesticides registered with the USEPA can be distributed, sold or placed into commerce TSCA inventory list requirements - Answer All chemical manufactured for sale LQG - Answer Large Quantity Generator, >1000 kg per month or > 1 kg of acutely hazardous waste per month SQG - Answer Small Quantity Generator, 100 kg < x < 1000 kg per month, AND accumulates <6000 kg at any time CESQG - Answer Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator, <100 kg per month or <1kg of acute waste per month AND accumulates <1000 kg or <1 kg acute or <100kg cleanup from an acute spill Hazardous waste characteristics - Answer Ignitability, corrosivity, toxicity, reactivity NAAQS contaminants - Answer Particulates, Sulfur Dioxide, Nitrogen Dioxide, Carbon Monoxide, Ozone, Lead Sulfur coal plant emit? - Answer SO2, SO3, and SO4(-2) Grab samples for wastewater 24-hour composite sampling event - Answer Oil and grease
T/F: There TLVs for total culturable or countable organisms and particles - Answer False What defines general use pesticides - Answer Pesticides that can be used by untrained persons according to label instructions without creating unreasonable adverse effects to the person applying the pesticides or to the environment. How do you calculate the Hazard Index (HI)? - Answer HI = dose / RfD The respiratory protection equipment required for initial entry to remove sludge that is contaminated with an unknown hydrocarbon is? - Answer SCBA operated in pressure demand mode How do you calculate radioactive attenuation - Answer I(2) = I(1) (r(1)/r(2))^ I= intensity r= distance from the source To qualify a UST as a "confined space" it must be established that it has: - Answer limited access and/or toxic atmospheres the potential for an IDLH atmosphere makes it a "permit required confined space" A mixture of a hazardous waste (non-listed) and a solid (non-hazardous) waste is? - Answer Not considered a hazardous waste if the mixture no longer retains the characteristic that made it hazardous (i.e. ignitability) What remediation technology is effective for removing high concentrations of low- solubility petroleum compounds from contaminated soil? - Answer Soil vapor extraction wells LD(50/30) refers to? - Answer The dose expected to cause the death of 50% of an exposed population within 30 minutes The majority of the gas generated within a landfill is methane and ____? - Answer Carbon dioxide What is the generally accepted method for measuring attainment with NAAQS for nitrogen dioxide? - Answer chemiluminescence Who is responsible for evaluating chemicals to determine if they are hazardous? - Answer manufacturers and importers What is the description of a Class IV organic peroxide? - Answer Burns as ordinarily combustible and presents a minimum reactivity hazard What is the description of a Class I unstable, non-water reactive material? - Answer Normally stable What classifications are used for cryogenic fluids? - Answer corrosive/highly toxic, flammable, non-flammable
to soils containing? - Answer Humic (the process is called on sorption and is based on relative affinity) A generator is considering less expensive options to incineration for management of chlorobenzene, options available under the RCRA generator standards are? - Answer Recycling the solution directly into the process from which it was generated. Disposal in a landfill and volatilization are not acceptable under RCRA What are the four steps in preparing an environmental impact statement (EIS)? - Answer 1) Screening
- Scoping
- EIS Preparation
- Review What are the required elements in a negligence claim? - Answer 1) Duty of the defendant to the plaintiff
- Breach of that duty
- Damage to the plaintiff
- Breach was the proximate cause of the damage Define strict liability - Answer Strict liability for abnormally dangerous activities may cause a defendant to be liable for harm to a person, land or personal property of another resulting from that activity, although the defendant has exercised the utmost care to prevent the harm. What are the four types of torts? - Answer Trespass, Nuisance, Negligence, Strict Liability 10 CFR =? - Answer Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC), Dept of Energy 29 CFR =? - Answer Department of Labor 30 CFR =? - Answer Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA), Mineral Resources 33 CFR =? - Answer Coast Guard, Navigation and Navigable Waters 40 CFR =? - Answer EPA, Protection of the Environment 49 CFR =? - Answer Department of Transportation 5 EMS components - Answer Environmental policy, planning, Implementation and operation, Checking and Corrective Action, Management Review The five assets of the SIGMA guidelines - Answer Natural capital (environment), human capital (people), social capital (relationships/structures), manufactured capital (fixed assets), financial capital (profit, sales, shares, cash)
7 steps of an audit - Answer Initiation, Document review, prepare for on-site audit, perform on-site audit, prepare the audit report, complete the audit, conduct the audit follow-up 8 types of records to review in an audit - Answer environmental permits, environmental logs and inspections, correspondence to/from regulatory agencies, regulatory report filings, facility material balance, emission inventories, MSDSs, Hazardous waste manifests/shipping papers Nine penalty mitigation conditions - Answer Systematic discovery, voluntary discovery (sampling/auditing), prompt disclosure (within 21 days), independent discovery and disclosure, correction and remediation within 60 days, prevent recurrence of the violation, repeat violations are ineligible, ineligible violations (actual harm, imminent and substantial endangerment, violates terms of an AO or CA), cooperation is required. CDI calculation - Answer CDI = (Concentration)(daily intake)(exposure frequency)(exposure duration, typ 70 years)/(body weight, typ 70 kg)(average exposure time (day) Risk calculation - Answer risk = slope factor (SF) x CDI WBS - Answer Work breakdown structure (PM) Four characteristics of a corporation - Answer limited liability to the extent of assets, continuity of life, centralization of management, free transferability of ownership interests (an LLC can only have two of these traits) SWOT - Answer Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats (business) Vapor Density > 1 - Answer will sink. All flammable liquids and most gases have a vapor density greater than 1. Vapor Density < 1 - Answer will float Specific Gravity > 1 - Answer will sink in water Specific Gravity < 1 - Answer will float in water Mixture - Answer Material that can be separated by a physical process (evaporation), density differences, or simple solubility difference. Homogeneous - Answer Uniform mixture Heterogeneous - Answer Has one or more states of matter in the mixture Metals most likely encountered by CHMM - Answer lithium (Li), sodium (Na), and potassium (K) Dangerous when wet
