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EMT FISDAP FINAL EXAM PRACTICE 221 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Accritical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than hours following the incident. - 72 Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? - AED As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: - may not be present or obvious at all times The patient care report (PCR) ensures: - continuity of care Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS? A. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia Incorrect B. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) Correct C. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device Incorrect D. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle Incorrect - B. a 64- year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) A patient's refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be: - an informed refusal Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? - deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? - A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should: - report the incident to your supervisor after the call A positive TB skin test indicates that: - . you have been exposed to the disease. Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: - . elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: - . brief and easily understood. f an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: - it was not performed in the eyes of the law. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: - not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and: - chief complaint. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: - medical director. Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication? - . simplex D. a response to the residence of a patient who fell - a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: - gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: - careless handling of sharps. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should: - begin resuscitation at once. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: - draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? - protecting patient privacy Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: important medical history not previously given. B. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. C. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided. - the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. - maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. B. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. - C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? Choose one answer. A. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. B. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years. C. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. - D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Choose one answer. A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin B. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor D. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis - 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Correct Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? Choose one answer. A. asking questions related to the chief complaint B. trending of the patient's vital signs over time C. focusing solely on how the call is dispatched D. refraining from asking open-ended questions - A. asking questions related to the chief complaint The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person: - sleeps the leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: - epiglottis. The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: - addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: - your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: Choose one answer. A. trachea. B. alveoli. C. epiglottis. D. bronchioles. - C. epiglottis. The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: - cervical spine injuries Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: - incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood. 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: - remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. Inhalation occurs when the - diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: - shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. a respiratory infection. Distributive shock occurs when: - widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. The two processes that occur during respiration are - inspiration and expiration. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct? Choose one answer. A. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. B. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. D. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. - The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: - . oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Choose one answer. A. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. B. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. C. Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. - MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as: - inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells. Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should - attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia? A. pleural effusion B. pulmonary edema C. prolonged seizures D. severe anxiety - D. severe anxiety Syphilis is a: - bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Choose one answer. A. hypotension B. wheezing C. pallor D. dizziness - wheezing Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Choose one answer. C. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. D. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. - The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: - adequate amounts of surfactant. Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Choose one answer. A. tachycardia Incorrect B. anxiety Incorrect C. restlessness D. cyanosis - cyanosis An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Choose one answer. A. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. B. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. D. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. - C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. Correct Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: - cardiogenic shock Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by - repeating the primary assessment an organ or tissue may be better to resis damage from hypperfusion if the - body temperature is consistently less than 98.6F (37.0) the electrical impulse by the heart originates in the - sinoatrial node(sa) what is true about blood clotting? - a person taking aspirin will expierence slower blood clotting classic symptoms and signs of hypoglycemia include - cool, clammy, weak, tachycardia, rapid respirations glucose is a trade name for - oral glucose What organs lie in the retroperitoneal space? - gallbladder common causes of psychotic behavior include the following, except - Alzheimers dieses significant vital signs changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than___of his or her blood - 20% What is a fact of hemophilia's? - may bleed spontaneously status epileptics is characterized by - prolonged seizures without return of consciousness a transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when - the normal body process destroy a clot ina cerebral artery as woman approaches menopause - her menstrul periods may become irregular and vary in severity a young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. as your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control obvious bleeding then - assess for an exit wound the most significant risk factor for a hemorragic stroke is - hypertension cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because - there is not enough time between contractions for the heart to refill because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following sting - it can continue to inject venom up to 20 mins your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an inmate. on arrival, you find the patient a 33 year old male lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only has a slow, shallow respirations. you should be most concerned that this patient - may vomit and aspirate air bags are designed to - decrease the severity of deceleration injuries functions of the liver include - production of substances necessary for blood clotting the normal blood glucose level as measured by a glucometer is between - 80 and 120 mg/dl epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when - wheezing and hypotension are present sudden death following AMI is most often caused by - ventricular fibirillation the head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the - carotid arteries the purpose of defibrillation - stop the chaotic,disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells your paramedic partne administers atropine to a 49 year old male with bradycardia. which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to have - dry mucus membrane what organ would most likely bleed profusely if injured? - liver in contrast to level 3 trauma center, a level 1 trauma center - must have general surgeons on call 24/7 you respond to a 55 year old residence, female with a possible allergic reaction to peanuts that she ate approx 30 mins ago. the patient is conscious and alert but has diffuse uticaria and the feeling that she has a lump in her throat. as your partner applied oxygen. you should - ask her if she has prescribed epi esophageal varicose most commonly occur in patients - drink a lot of alcohol the systemic veins function by - returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart injury to a hollow abdominal organ would most likely result in - a leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients - who have experienced a head injury the single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is - depression which of the following met accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke - blockage of a cerebral artery AED is the most advantageous to an EMT because - it delivers prompt defillbilartion to patients in V-Fib you arrive at the home of a 50 year old female with severe epitaxis, as you treat her it is most important to recall - the patient is at risk for vomitting and aspiration two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are - falls and motor vehicle collisions acute coronary syndrome is a term to describe - a group of symptoms that are cause myocardial ischemia deoxygenated blood from the body returns to - the right atrium what organ can tolerate inadequate profusion for up to 2 hours - skeletal muscle if direct pressure with a sterile fails immediately to stop severe bleeding you should apply - a tourniquet proximal to injury when assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavoir an emt should - consider acute medical illness may be causing the patients behavior what is the major difference between AMI and angina pectoris - anginal pain typically subsides with rest patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to drink because - substances in the stomach increase risk for aspiration most patients with the abdominal pain prefer to - lie on side with knees drawn in after applying pressure dressing to a laceration on a patients arm, you notice the blood is beginning to saturate, you should - place additional dressings prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitrogen, the emt must - obtain authorization by medical control assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will most likely reveal - combativeness when assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should - be direct and clearly state your intentions 
