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EMT Final Exam Best For Exam Prep Questions
And Answers 100% Correct
1. Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS sys-
tem assessment programs?
A. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
B. United States Health Services Agency (HSA)
C. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
D. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB: A). National Highway
Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
2. What best describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of
advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration?
A. Emergency Medical Responder
B. Paramedic
C. Advanced EMT
D. EMT: C. Advanced EMT
3. A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The
EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clot- ting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying
he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special bandages?
A. Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to
provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better.
B. Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the
special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director.
C. Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them side by
side to the regular bandages.
D. Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give
to the Medical Director.: B. Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director.
4. What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard
Precautions or body substance isolation precautions?
A. Personal protective equipment
B. Harm-reduction strategy
A. Standard of care
B. Expressed consent
C. Duty to act
D. Scope of practice: D. Scope of practice
8. Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm
while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the best way to obtain consent for treatment?
A. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.
B. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene.
C. Act on implied consent.
D. Call the patient's mother at wor:kC. all the patient's mother at work.
9. Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured
crime scene?
A. Providing patient care
B. Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene
C. Preserving evidence
D. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony: A. Providing
patient care
10. Which of the following is not part of a medical radio report?
A. Estimated time of arrival
B. Address at which the patient was located
C. Patient's response to medical care provided
D. Unit identification: B. Address at which the patient was located
11. You are treating a patient with a possible fractured ankle. The patient
appears to be in a lot of pain and is uneasy. As you are getting ready to splint the patient's leg, he asks you if it is going to hurt. Which of the following is the best response?
A. "I will do my best, but it may hurt while we put the splint on."
B. "If you're stressed out like this, it's going to hurt a lot more."
C. "Relax, this is not a painful procedure."
D. "It doesn't matter, we have to do it anyw:aAy..""I will do mybest, but it
may hurt while we put the splint on."
12. Which of the following is not an objective element of documented patient
information?
A. Patient's complaint of nausea
B. Patient's age
C. Patient's blood pressure
B. Lean forward from the hips.
C. Lean forward from the waist.
D. Keep your back straight.: C. Lean forward from the waist.
16. At what point is the scene size-up complete?
A. Upon stabilization of the c-spine
B. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized
C. When the number of patients has been determined
D. At the end of the call: D. At the end of the call
17. Which of the following is not a consideration that should be used by the
EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone?
A. Amount of equipment needed
B. Presence of hazardous materials
C. Wind direction
D. Fire: A. Amount of equipment needed
18. You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a
compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion?
A. Abdominal injuries
B. Chest injury
C. Fractures of the lower extremities
D. Neck injury: D. Neck injury
19. Which of the following is a purpose for carrying an aluminum foil roll on
an ambulance?
A. To keep a newborn warm
B. To care for amputated parts
C. To control major arterial bleeding
D. None of the above: A. To keep a newborn warm
20. Which of the following represents best practice when responding to a
highway incident?
A. Keeping the ambulance on the same side of the road as the incident
B. Parking immediately behind the first unit on scene when you are a sec-
ondary unit
C. Using emergency lighting rather than cones or flares to warn traffic of the
24. You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in
which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene.
B. Identify all Priority 1 patients.
C. Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.
D. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the
parking lot of a nearby building.: D. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.
25. You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the
rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia?
A. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know
what precautions are required.
B. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare
for the type of patient they may encounter.
C. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level
of care, and it may change the level of response.
D. There is actually no need to clarify the word.: B. Without a clarifying prefix,
it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter.
26. Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms
of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the:
A. Fowler position.
B. recovery position.
C. supine position.
D. prone position.: B. recovery position.
27. Which of the following describes the Fowler position?
A. Lying flat on the back
B. Sitting upright with the legs straight
C. Lying on the stomach
D. Lying on the side: B. Sitting upright with the legs straight
C. orbit.
D. manubrium.: A. mandible.
30. You are on the scene at an office building where a 32-year-old male
is described as having difficulty breathing and chest pain. The patient is allergic to peanuts and thinks he may have accidentally ingested some cookies with peanuts in them this afternoon during his break. He is pale with a pulse rate of 158 and a respiratory rate of 36. You understand that a fight-or-flight response may have been activated in this patient, involvin which nervous system and which hormone?
A. Sympathetic nervous system and insulin
B. Parasympathetic nervous system and insulin
C. Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
D. Parasympathetic nervous system and epinephrine: C. Sympathetic nervous
system and epinephrine
31. When you startle a 4-month-old, he throws his arms out, spreads his
fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as the:
A. Moro reflex.
B. startle reflex.
C. scaffolding reflex.
D. rooting reflex.: A. Moro reflex.
32. Middle adulthood is the stage of life from to years.
A. 41; 60
B. 31; 60
C. 35; 55
D. 35; 65: A. 41; 60
33. What is the stage of development where there are several physiological and
psychosocial changes, second only to those seen in infancy or adole cence?
A. Preschool age
B. Late adulthood
C. Toddler
D. Middle adulthood: B. Late adulthood
34. How often should a patient's vital signs be reassessed during transport to
the hospital after the pulse has been restored with CPR and the use of an AED?
A. Every 15 minutes
B. Every 5 minutes
38. Shock occurs as a result of which of the following?
A. Adequate perfusion
B. V/Q match
C. Inadequate perfusion
D. C/Q match: C. Inadequate perfusion
39. When the body's water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial
space, this can often be seen as:
A. hypovolemia.
B. dehydration.
C. edema.
D. hydrostatic pressure.: C. edema.
40. Graves' disease is an example of a condition caused by:
A. too many hormones.
B. gastrointestinal bleeding.
C. adrenal insufficiency.
D. damage to the medulla oblongata.: A. too many hormones.
41. Why should EMTs study pharmacology?
A. An EMT must know the sources, characteristics, and effects of each
medication that the physician may prescribe.
B. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency
situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm. C.As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations, although many of these may do nothing but give the patient false hope. D. An EMT must know the manufacturer, sources, characteristics, and effec of every medication that the patient may use.: B. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm.
42. Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by
auto-injector?
A. Decreased perfusion of tissues
B. Dilation of coronary arteries
C. Constriction of blood vessels
D. Decrease in blood pressure: C. Constriction of blood vessels
43. Which of the following instructions should you give to a patient whom
you are about to assist with administering epinephrine?
45. Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway?
A. Bronchi
B. Pharynx
C. Tonsils
D. Uvula: A. Bronchi
46. All of the following can result in airway obstructions except:
A. facial trauma.
B. burns.
C. infections.
D. the tongue.: D. the tongue.
47. On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable
suction unit to the patient's side upon arrival on the scene?
A. Cardiac arrest
B. Motor vehicle collision
C. Seizure
D. All of the above: D. All of the above
48. For life to be maintained, a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide is
needed. The condition when oxygen levels are low is called:
A. hypercapnia.
B. hypoxia.
C. hypoperfusion.
D. hyperventilation.: B. hypoxia.
49. Your patient is a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail.
The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen.
B. Apply a cervical collar.
C. Apply a nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm.
D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.: A. Use a bag-valve mask with supple-
mental oxygen.
50. While ventilating an intubated patient with a bag-valve-mask-unit, you
notice increased resistance to the ventilations. This may indicate that:
A. cardiac arrest is imminent.
B. air is escaping through a hole in the lung and filling the pleural space.
C. the patient is becoming more alert and is breathing independently.
D. the gag reflex is returning.: B. air is escaping through a hole in the lung and
filling the pleural space.
