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EMT-B Final Exam Review Questions & Answers, Exams of Medicine

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EMT-B Final Exam Review
Questions & Answers
1. Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and
improving the effectiveness of an EMS system?
A. System effectiveness management
B. Total quality system
C. Quality improvement
D. Process Improvement Plan (PIP): C. Quality improvement
2. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the agencies
with the development of emergency medical service standards?
A. U.S. Department of the Interior
B. U.S. Department of Health Services
C. U.S. Department of Transportation
D. U.S. Department of Homeland Security: C. U.S. Department of Transportation
3. Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation,
and care most refers to which of the following?
A. Emergency preparedness plan
B. Resource management
C. Central deployment
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EMT-B Final Exam Review

Questions & Answers

1. Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and

improving the effectiveness of an EMS system?

A. System effectiveness management

B. Total quality system

C. Quality improvement

D. Process Improvement Plan (PIP): C. Quality improvement

2. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the agencies

with the development of emergency medical service standards?

A. U.S. Department of the Interior

B. U.S. Department of Health Services

C. U.S. Department of Transportation

D. U.S. Department of Homeland Security: C. U.S. Department of Transportation

3. Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation,

and care most refers to which of the following?

A. Emergency preparedness plan

B. Resource management

C. Central deployment

D. Tauma system: B. Resource management

4. Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS sys-

tem assessment programs?

A. United States Health Services Agency (HSA)

B. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)

C. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA): D. National High-

way Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

5. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emer-

gency medical services (EMS) system?

A. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care

on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital

B. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and

"do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital

C. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and

ill patients on the scene

D. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital

care: A. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital

C. Personal protective equipment

D. Infection-control plan: C. Personal protective equipment

10. Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen?

A. A study of the origins of infection and disease

B. An organism that causes infection and disease

C. A medication with a harmful effect

D. An immunity developed after an exposure: B. An organism that causes

infection and disease

11. An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for

which of these patients?

A. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration

B. A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest

C. A patient who is actively coughing

D. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris: C.

A patient who is actively coughing

12. Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding

to a motor vehicle crash may consider using in addition to standard PPE.

A. Face shields

B. Heavy- duty gloves

C. Level B hazmat suits

D. N-95 masks: B. Heavy- duty gloves

13. You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the

trauma is visible around the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the best ap- proach regarding respiratory isolation.

A. Mask yourself only

B. Use gloves for PPE, as that's all that is needed

C. Isolate the patient with a non-rebreather mask

D. Mask yourself and the patient: D. Mask yourself and the patient

14. Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning?

A. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT

does not wear gloves

B. In cases where soap and water and alcohol- based hand cleaners are not

immediately available, bleach wipes should be used

C. If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not

sufficient

D. HIV positive needle sticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate: D.

HIV positive needle sticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate

17. What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which

emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job?

A. Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens Act

B. Ryan White CARE act

C. Communicable Disease Notification Act

D. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991: B. Ryan White CARE act

18. What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when

transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?

A. Gloves

B. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles

C. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown

D. Gloves and N-95 mask: C. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown

19. Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or

psychological arousal to a stimulus?"

A. Homeostasis

B. Eustress

C. Distress

D. Stress: D. Stress

20. Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and

long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being?

A. Eustress

B. Distress

C. Megastress

D. Hyperstress: A. Eustress

21. The term burnout is also known as a(n) stress reaction

A. Delayed

B. Cumulative

C. Acute

D. Post-traumatic: B. Cumulative

22. Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n).

A. Severe stress reaction

B. Acute stress reaction

lifting?

A. As wide apart as possible

B. Two feet apart

C. As close together as possible

D. Shoulder-width apart: D. Shoulder-width apart

27. Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true?

A. Position your feet close together

B. Use your legs to lift

C. Twist your torso while lifting

D. Use your back to lift: B. Use your legs to lift

28. Which of the following should you do when reaching for something?

A. Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body

B. Avoid twisting

C. Keep your back in a locked- in position

D. All of the above: D. All of the above

29. Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a

mentally competent adult?

A. Unconditional consent

B. Conscious consent

C. Expressed consent

D. Implied consent: C. Expressed consent

30. Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the

legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT?

A. Scope of practice

B. Professional standards

C. Legal standards of practice

D. Protocols and standing orders: A. Scope of practice

31. The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization

is part of which of the following for the EMT?

A. Scope of practice

B. Duty to act

C. Standard of practice

D. Protocols and standing orders: A. Scope of practice

32. Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be

provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation?

B. Act on implied consent

C. Call the patient's mother at work

D. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor: C. Call the patient's

mother at work

35. Your respond to a middle school for a 12 year old male patient who has

been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents?

A. Informed consent

B. Healthcare proxy

C. In loco parentis

D. Res ipsa loquitur: C. In loco parentis

36. The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or

ethical responsibility is known as which of the following?

A. Standard of care

B. Scope of practice

C. Duty to act

D. Legal responsibility: C. Duty to act

37. You arrive on the scene of a 55 year old male patient. The patient's

wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should

you do?

A. Provide emergency care under implied consent

B. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing

care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law

C. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document

stating they will not sue the EMS service

D. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much

the wife begs you to help: A. Provide emergency care under implied consent

38. In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative

measures from a patient in cardiac arrest?

A. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his

physician

B. Family members request that nothing be done

C. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the

caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes

D. Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to

the hospital for evaluation: B. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care

41. If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be

resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision?

A. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing

B. Consult with the patient's physician

C. Withhold resuscitative measures

D. Begin resuscitative measures: D. Begin resuscitative measures

42. Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandon-

ment by the EMT?

A. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable

injuries but does not stop to help

B. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his

physician

C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the

patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff

D. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a para-

medic: C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff

43. Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50

year old male patient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form

B. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation

C. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died

D. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over

the patient's medical condition: B. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation

44. An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle

accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment

B. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to

help in an emergency

C. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if

necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty

D. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a

Good Samaritan law: B. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency

46. Which of the following requires training, polices, and procedures related

to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? A. COBRA B.EMTALA C.HIPAA D. HIAPA: C.HIPAA

47. While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about

a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following?

A. HIPAA violation

B. Degradation of character

C. Slander

D. Libel: D. Libel

48. You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the

scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT?

A. Medical

B. Ethical

C. Financial

D. Legal: B. Ethical

49. While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation

home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene?

A. Using the patient's phone

B. Moving the patient

C. Using the bathroom

D. All of the above: D. All of the above

50. Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured

crime scene?

A. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony