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EG BOARD Prep (Part 1 Getting Ready for EEG Board Success: Part 1" Comprehensive Exam Study Guide with 100% Verified Answers. Latest Updated 2025/2026.
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The basic unit for measuring current flow is: a. atomic weight b. Coulomb c. Volt d. Ampere - ansd. ampere The basic unit of resistance is: a. Ohm b. Coulomb c. Ampere d. Volt - ansa. ohm Which of the following is NOT a valid expression of Ohm's Law: a. R=EI or (R=VI) b. E=IR or (V=IR) c. I=E/R or (I=V/R) d. R=E/I or (R=V/I) - ansa. R=EI or (R=VI) Which of the following is NOT a unit for measuring alternating frequencies: a. cycles per second b. volts c. hertz d. kilocycles - ansb. volts Which of the following describes the action of a capacitor? a. opposes changes in current flow b. converts A/C to D/C c. creates a direct current resistance d. stores energy - ansd. stores energy A circuit that allows some frequencies to pass through it, while others are blocked is a: a. resistor b. transistor c. filter d. reactor - ansc. filter A combination of electronic components designed to increase the power, voltage or current of a signal: a. amplifier b. line filter c. master gain control d. sensitivity - ansa. amplifier
A small fluctuating output recorded by the EEG instrument even when there is no input signal is called: a. output voltage b. linear distortion c. 60Hz interference d. noise - ansd. noise The EEG amplifier is designed so that when input 1 is more negative than input 2, the deflection will be - ansupward Common mode rejection is: a. the ability of an amplifier to cancel out ECG artifact b. the characteristic of an amplifier that rejects external interference c. is dependent on the sampling rate d. controlle by the 60-cycle notch filter - ansb. the characteristic of an amplifier that rejects external interference Which of the following is most attenuated by a low frequency filter of 1 Hz? a. 0.5 Hz b. 5.0 Hz c. 10.0 Hz d. 0.1 Hz - ansd. 0.1 Hz Time constant is defined as the time required for the deflection to fall (decay): a. to 47% of the peak deflection b. 57% of the peak deflection c. 77% of the peak deflection d. to 37% of the peak deflection - ansd. to 37% of the peak deflection An EEG record has 3/sec spike & wave discharges. Both the spike and the slow wave have voltages of 100uV. If this discharge is recorded with a LFF of 5Hz and a sensitivity of 10uV/mm, what would be the deflection of the spike and the wave? a. spike 10mm & wave 6mm b. spike 6mm & wave 10mm c. spike 10mm & wave 10mm d. spike 6mm & wave 6mm - ansa. spike 10mm wave 6mm A high frequency setting of 35Hz would attenuate 50Hz muscle activity by approximately what percentage: a. 10% b. 20% c. 40%
c. four d. ten - ansb. three In a record with 10Hz alpha activity, when the display epoch is changed from 10 seconds/display screen to 20 seconds/display screen, the frequency of the activity will be: a. 5Hz b. 15Hz c. 20Hz d. 10Hz - ansd. 10 Hz In a DC calibration wave, if in channel-B compared to channel-A, is "slower", what instrument change would have been made to channel B: a. display epoch length b. decrease LFF c. increase HFF d. sensitivity - ansb. decrease LFF Guidelines for recording digital EEG are written by: a. the American Society of Electroneurodiagnostic Technologist (ASET) b. the American Academy of Neurology (AAN) c. the American Clinical Neurophysiology Society (ACNS) d. the Organization of Societies of Electrophysiological Technology (OSET) - ansc. the American Clinical Neurophysiology Society (ACNS) The term RAM means: a. read only memory used for archiving data b. the amount of data that can be stored on a rewritable CD c. the amount of data that can be stored on a DVD d. temporary memory storage that is critical to rapid computer operations - ansd. temporary memory storage that is critical to rapid computer operations Three basic computer PORTS are: a. intranet, internet & extranet b. internal, external & bifid c. serial, paradoxical & US d. serial, parallel & USB - ansd. serial, parallel & USB The best metals for clinical EEG recording are: a. gold-plated lead, nickel or silver b. silver-silver chloride, platinum or gold c. tin, copper, or silver-silver chloride d. stainless steel, platinum or silver - ansb. silver-silver chloride, platinum or gold
Which electrodes do NOT record directly from the brain? a. depth b. sub-dermal c. subdural d. epidural - ansb. sub-dermal Which of the following is NOT related to measuring electrode resistance? a. opposition to D/C flow b. measurement while the electrode is unattached to the scalp c. measurement with an ohmmeter d. opposition to A/C flow - ansd. opposition to A/C flow The distance from Cz to Pz is 6.8cm. What is the distance from nation to inion? a. 34cm b. 35mm c. 36mm d. 37cm - ansa. 34cm The electrode site that is located 1cm above, 1/3 the distance out from the left external auditory meatus toward the left outer canthus is called: a. T1 or F b. F7 or F c. F d. LOC - ansa. T1 or F Due to a central scalp lesion, C4 has to be relocated 4mm anteriorly. The technologist should: a. relocate C3 4mm anteriorly b. make no other placement changes c. relocate P3 4mm anteriorly d. relocate all electrodes in the right parasagittal plane 4mm anteriorly - ansa. relocate C 4mm anteriorly In a referential montage, how is the origin of the potential determined: a. morphology b. phase reversal c. amplitude d. polarity - ansc. amplitude
. - ans. A patient can become the pathway for least resistance and therefore electrically susceptible to shock when: a. the recording instrument is turned on
d. 2, 1.0, 30 - ansd. 2, 1.0, 30 The tracts connecting the right and left hemispheres are called the: a. corpus callosum b. internal capsule c. intra-hemispheric association fibers d. basal ganglia - ansa. corpus callosum The central sulcus (fissure of Rolando) demarcates the: a. left & right hemispheres b. frontal & parietal lobes c. frontal & temporal lobes d. parietal & occipital lobes - ansb. frontal & parietal lobes The homunculus is a: a. representation of the motor and sensory cortex of the brain b. gyrus found in the temporal lobe c. lateral loss of vision in one eye d. type of tumor - ansa. representation of the motor and sensory cortex of the brain The diencephalon is composed of: a. hypothalamus & thalamus b. basal ganglia & pons c. thalamus & medulla d. midbrain & pons - ansa. hypothalamus & thalamus The midbrain, pons and medulla comprise the: a. red nucleus b. reticular activating system c. brainstem d. limbic system - ansc. brainstem One benefit to networking EEG instruments is the ability to: a. allow unrestricted access to test results b. share test results with patients via their home computer c. allow technologists to access internet sites while recording patient data d. store multiple files on a central server - ansd. store multiple files on a central server Two important functions of the medulla are: a. proprioception and smell b. respiration and regulation of the heart rate c. respiration and sleep
d. feeding reflex (suckling) and endocrine system regulation - ansb. respiration and regulation the heart rate The trigeminal nerve: a. permits eye movement b. aids in swallowing c. is the major sensory nerve of the face d. permits tongue movement - ansc. is the major sensory nerve of the face A sub-arachnoid hemorrhage occurs: a. between 2 layers of meninges b. below the cerebellum c. within the ventricles d. above the tentorium - ansa. between 2 layers of meninges The cardiovascular and respiratory centers for automatic control of heart rate and respiration are found in the: a. midbrain b. pons c. medulla d. diencephalons - ansc. medulla The EEG of an aphasic patient who's computed tomography aka CT scan reveals a subdural hematoma is most likely to show: a. right temporal spike and wave focus b. attenuation of background in the left hemisphere c. left hemispheric PLEDs d. generalized polyspikes - ansb. attenuation of background in the left hemisphere Intracerebral hemorrhage from the middle cerebral artery would most likely produce an EEG finding of: a. periodic bursts of high amplitude theta activity over the ipsilateral hemisphere b. delta activity maximal over the frontotemporal area of affected hemisphere c. spike and wave complexes over the affected hemisphere d. alpha coma - ansb. delta activity maximal over the frontotemporal area of affected hemisphere A diagnosis of an astrocytoma in the left frontal lobe is most likely to produce which of the following EEG findings: a. generalized polymorphic delta activity b. focal delta activity in the right hemisphere c. left frontal focal spike activity
The pattern in the illustration above is associated with which of the following "slow-viral" disease: a. herpes simplex encephalitis b. AIDS c. SSPE d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease - ansd. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease The triad of cataplexy, sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations is seen in: a. apoplexy b. sleep apnea c. narcolepsy d. temporal lobe epilepsy - ansc. naroclepsy What is the EEG pattern seen in the illustration above and most often associated with herpes encephalitis, CVA, brain abscess and other forms of acute brain injury: a. repetitive spike and wave b. burst suppression c. benign epileptiform transients of sleep d. periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges - ansd. periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges The sleep disorder that occurs most commonly in the adult population is: a. narcolepsy b. sleep apnea c. hypersomnolence d. sleep terrors - ansb. sleep apnea The purpose of the multiple sleep latency test aka MSLT is to : a. observe the patient during hypnagogic hallucinations b. quantify the patient's sleepiness and identify REM onset c. calculate the patient's response to sleep deprivation d. record eye movement - ansb.quantify the patient's sleepiness and identify REM onset Of the following, which would be the most beneficial in evaluating suspected narcolepsy: a. pneumoencephalography b. electroencephalography c. all night polysomnography d. multiple sleep latency test - ansd. multiple sleep latency test Benzodiazepines such as Ativan aka Lorazepam, at therapeutic levels can cause: a. marked diffuse slowing b. frontal central beta
c. epileptiform activity d. focal frontal slowing - ansb. frontal central beta The drug phenytoin aka Dilantin, will have little effect on the EEG at therapeutic levels, however when approaching toxic levels the drug can cause what EEG change: a. an increase in beta b. a slowing in the background alpha c. frontal beta d. bursts of temporal theta - ansb. a slowing in the background alpha Sodium amytal is used for: a. truth serum b. Wada test c. Cerebral angiogram d. to induce seizures - ansb. Wada test Increasing depth of anesthesia causes which of the following sequences of EEG changes: a. increased beta then intermixed theta then delta, with burst suppression if anesthesia is deep enough b. burst suppression then delta then theta c. loss of alpha then increased theta then widespread beta d. delta then widespread beta then burst suppression - ansa. increased beta then intermixed theta then delta, with burst suppression if anesthesia is deep enough Which of the following medications can commonly cause increased theta and beta activity at therapeutic doses: a. antidepressants b. chloral hydrate c. analgesics d. antihistamines - ansa. antidepressants Sampling skew is a problem with early digital EEG instruments caused by: a. inability to simultaneously sample multiple channels of EEG b. improper pen alignment c. uncorrected shifts in electrical baseline d. in phase cancellation - ansa. inability to simultaneously sample multiple channels of EEG Aliasing is caused by: a. improper electrode placement b. 60Hz interference c. insufficient amplifier gain d. insufficient sampling rate - ansd. insufficient sampling rate
a. generalized 3/second spike and slow wave discharges b. occipital sharp waves c. temporal sharp waves d. occipital slow waves of youth - ansb. occipital sharp waves In the sample below, what is the most outstanding feature noted: a. left temporal spike b. left temporal sharp wave c. left temporal slow focus d. left temporal wicket spikes - ansc. left temporal slow focus In the sample below, what is the abnormality seen: a. sudden onset of spikes and polyspikes b. classic 3/second spike and slow wave c. movement artifact d. sweat artifact - ansa. sudden onset of spikes and polyspikes The following sample is the same data as the previous sample but reformatted. In the reformatted sample below, what instrument parameter was changed and how did it improve the interpreters ability to interpret the date: a. increased sensitivity, make abnormality larger b. decrease sensitivity, to better resolve the morphology of the abnormality c. increased time base to better display the focal onset d. decreased time base to better display the focal slowing - ansb. decrease sensitivity, to better resolve the morphology of the abnormality How did the change in the previous question, improve the sample: a. better evaluation of possible focal onset b. better resolution of morphology and amplitude c. better localization d. better display and lateralization - ansb. better resolution of morphology and amplitude In the sample below, the same data is modified and reformatted again. What parameter changed in the following sample and how does this help: a. decreased sensitivity to better resolve the spikes b. increased sensitivity to better resolve the low amplitude activity c. increased time base or decreased paper speed to scrunch up the waveforms to better resolve focal slowing d. decreased time base or increase paper speed to spread out the waveforms to better resolve the fast activity and spikes - ansd. decreased time base or increase paper speed to spread out the waveforms to better resolve the fast activity and spikes
How did this change improve the sample in question 34: a. better localization of focus b. better resolution of spike morphology and anterior dominance c. enhanced analysis of EKG monitor d. better display of lateralization - ansb. better resolution of spike morphology and anterior dominance The sample below is from a 32-year-old patient with confused state, left arm and left facial twitching. What is seen in the sample that is consistent with the patient's history: a. PVC's b. excessive EMG activity c. normal background rhythms d. right temporal-central epileptiform activity - ansd. right temporal-central epileptiform activity In the sample in 36, what abnormality unrelated to the patient's history is seen: a. premature ventricular contraction b. burst suppression c. REM onset sleep d. hypoglycemia - ansa. premature ventricular contraction In the sample below, the 22-week-old patient is stated to be in Stage-2 sleep. What is the evidence that the patient is in stage-2 sleep: a. vertex sharp waves b. spindles c. decreased EMG d. absence of alpha - ansb. spindles Cancellation occurs when _______: a. the two electrodes in a channel are both inactive b. input 1 is higher in voltage than input 2 c. the voltage of input 1 is the same as the voltage in input 2 d. the reference electrode is truly inactive - ansc. the voltage of input 1 is the same as the voltage in input 2 In a referential montage, with Cz as the reference, what is the most valuable localizing feature: a. phase reversal b. highest voltage discharge c. in-phase cancellation d. common mode rejection - ansb. highest voltage discharge
How much voltage would be recorded if 25uV beta activity is recorded using a LFF of 1Hz: a. 1uV b. 7.5uV c. 17.5uV d. 25uV - ansd. 25uV A longer time constant results in _____: a. more slow frequencies recorded b. more slow frequencies attenuated c. the time base, epoch, analysis time, equivalent paper speed is extended d. the amplifier Lismore responsive to fast frequencies - ansa. more slow frequencies recorded Time constant is expressed in: a. mm per second b. seconds c. cycles per second d. uV per mm - ansb. seconds ________ is a fatal genetic lipid storage disorder seen in infants in which harmful quantities of fatty substance called ganglioside, build up in the tissues and nerve cells in the brain. After normal development during the first few months of life, there is progressive deterioration including seizures, deafness, blindness and paralysis. a. Tay-Sachs Disease b. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy c. Moyamoya Disease d. Paget's Disease - ansa. Tay-Sachs Disease In ________, old bone is broken down and replaced at a t faster rate than normal. The new bone is larger, softer, weaker and more easily broken than normal bone. This disease can affect any bones, including the skull, hip, pelvis and limbs. a. Paget's Disease b. Rasmussen's Syndrome c. Reyes Syndrome d. Sturge-Weber Syndrome - ansa. Paget's Disease Similar to Alzheimer's, ________ affects the frontal and temporal lobes first, with earliest symptoms showing up as changes in personality, and decline in function at home and at work. a. Reyes Syndrome b. Sturge-Weber Syndrome
c. Pick's Disease d. Paget's Disease - ansc. Pick's Disease A disorder of involuntary motor and/or vocal tics, and premonitory urges aka the urge to perform a motor activity, usually with onset in childhood or adolescence. a. Reyes Syndrome b. Sturge-Weber Syndrome c. Tourette's Syndrome d. Rasmussens's Syndrome - ansc. Tourette's Syndrome Brief period of transit paralysis following a seizure... - ansTodd's Paralysis A rare chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease usually affecting only one hemisphere of the brain characterized by frequent and severe seizures, loss of motor and speech as well as a hemiparesis and mental deterioration. Onset is common in childhood and rare in adolescents and adults: - ansRassmussen's Encephalitis A disease of unknown cause, usually following a viral infection in children who have taken aspirin, and resulting in vomiting, listlessness, personality changes, disorientation, seizures and loss of consciousness: - ansReyes Syndrome A neurological disorder indicated at birth by seizures accompanied by a large port-wine stain birthmark on the forehead, and cerebral cortex atrophy and increased pressure within the eye on the affected side: - ansSturge-Weber Syndrome In the sample below, the EEG shows that the patient's state is _________ as evidenced by the presence of __________. - ansStage-2 sleep, Vertex waves In the sample below, the patient's state is _______ as evidenced by the present of _________.
Input 1=(-)100uV and Input 2=(-)50uV. The waveform will deflect: - ansupward In a referential montage, what is the most valuable localizing feature? - anshighest voltage discharge In a chain linked bi-polar montage, what is the most valuable localizing feature? - ansphase reversal What is the most likely EEG finding during a psychogenic non-epileptic seizure? - ansnormal awake rhythms Hypocapnia causes: - ansblood vessels to constrict What kind of amplifiers are used to record biological signals? - ansdifferential By changing from a time constant=0.05 seconds to a time constant=0.10 seconds, the EEG instrument will: - ansrecord more slow frequencies At a sensitivity of 3uV/mm, how much voltage is represented by a 7mm deflection? - ans21uV After application of the electrodes, the impedance of every electrode should be measured. Impedances above 5K ohms should be reduced by adding - anselectrolyte or replacing the electrode Resistance describes the forces opposing - ansdirect current flow The maximum leakage current allowed at the chassis when the ground wire is disabled is - ans100uA A surface-negative, wicket-type rhythm found in the central head regions is known as - ansMu rhythm When sleep spindles are preceded by sharp waves, which can be elicited in response to sound, they are called - ansK-complexes HV would be considered abnormal when the build-up consists of - ansfocal delta Slow, rolling eye movements are seen - ansduring drowsiness Which of the following does NOT attenuate alpha rhythm: a. active mental concentration b. drowsiness c. eye closing d. eye opening - ansc. eye closing The conceptional age is defined as the - ansgestational age plus the chronological age A full-term neonate usually enters into sleep in a - ansREM-state Mu rhythm is highest amplitude in the _______ electrodes. - anscentral What should not be performed on a child with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease? - ansc. hyperventilation
To aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy, which of the following tests is performed? - ansd. multiple sleep latency Which activation procedure will bring out absence seizures? - anshyperventilation The EEG pattern most often seen with infantile spasms is - ansb. hypsarryhthmia Temporal spikes and/or sharp waves occurring at a rate of one every 1 to 3 seconds are seen with: - ansd. Herpes Simplex Encephalitis If a child has an episode of staring accompanied by 3Hz generalized spike and wave activity, the technologist should - ansc. test the child's responsiveness A facial port-wine is seen in - ansa. Sturge-Weber Syndrome The middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the - ansb. brain's lateral surface Which of the following cerebral structures interconnects symmetrical areas of the right and left hemispheres? - ansc. corpus callosum The substantia nigra supplies the neurotransmitter - ansc. dopamine The parasympathetic nervous system is activated by - ansa. relaxation The parasympathetic nervous system uses only _______________ as it's neurotransmitter. - ansc. acetylcholine aka Ach Which of the following electrophysiological events is thought to generate the EEG signal - ansd. both EPSPs and IPSPs The vestibular system is responsible for the function of - ansc. maintaining equilibrium The Circle of Willis provides - ansa. collateral blood circulation What term is used to describe an interruption in blood to the brain causing neurological symptoms, but with full recovery within 24-hours? - ansb. TIA When Input 1=-60uV and Input 2 =-60uV, then - ansb. cancellation occurs In the sample above, what pattern is present? - ansb. burst suppression An area of brain injury that occurs on the opposite side of a head injury is called - ansc. contra coup Which of the following is an abnormal cortical response to photic stimulation? - ansb. photo- paroxysmal discharges An EEG instrument's input impedance should be - ansb. very high Correct location of the nation is - ansa. the indentation between the forehead and the nose The correct location of the inion is - ansc. the ridge or knob at the back of the head Impedance is - ansa. opposition to AC current Breach rhythm is produced by - ansa. a skull defect Sleep spindles are - ansc. the onset of Stage 2 sleep POSTS are seen during - ansc. Stage 1 sleep