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Defense Acquisition ACQ 101: Test Questions and Answers, Exams of Data Acquisition

A series of questions and answers related to the defense acquisition university's acq 101 course, covering topics such as system definitions, risk factors, relevant documents, and the roles of various entities within the defense acquisition process. It provides insights into the dod's approach to translating joint capability needs and technological opportunities, the national environmental policy act (nepa), and the planning, programming, budgeting, and execution (ppbe) system. The material is useful for understanding the formal definitions of interoperability, the purpose of acquisition strategies, and the technology maturation and risk reduction (tmrr) phase. It also covers the use of the acquisition program baseline (apb), the milestone decision authority (mda), and the life cycle sustainment plan (lcsp).

Typology: Exams

2022/2023

Available from 06/06/2025

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DEFENSE ACQUISITION UNIVERSITY ACQ 101
CQ101 ALL MODULE TESTS
Verified Test Questions and Answers
1) How can a system be defined?
Answer: A system consists of all necessary elements (such as hardware, software, logistics
support, and personnel) required to assist the Department of Defense (DoD) in its mission of
deterring or winning war. This includes deployment processes, embedded software, and
hardware devices used by the DoD.
2) What performance risk factors must be addressed for successful acquisition management?
Answer: Key performance risk factors include the use of new materials or processes, program
objectives, staffing, logistics, supplies, user requirements, budget, and timelines.
3) Which document establishes a simplified management system for translating joint capability
needs and technological opportunities?
Answer: DoDI 5000.02, "Operation of the Defense Acquisition System."
4) What does the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) require the DoD to do?
Answer: NEPA requires the DoD to assess all acquisition programs, regardless of size, to
determine their environmental impact.
5) What is the DoD's primary resource allocation process described as "calendar-driven"?
Answer: The Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) system.
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DEFENSE ACQUISITION UNIVERSITY ACQ 101

CQ101 ALL MODULE TESTS

Verified Test Questions and Answers

  1. How can a system be defined? Answer: A system consists of all necessary elements (such as hardware, software, logistics support, and personnel) required to assist the Department of Defense (DoD) in its mission of deterring or winning war. This includes deployment processes, embedded software, and hardware devices used by the DoD.
  2. What performance risk factors must be addressed for successful acquisition management? Answer: Key performance risk factors include the use of new materials or processes, program objectives, staffing, logistics, supplies, user requirements, budget, and timelines.
  3. Which document establishes a simplified management system for translating joint capability needs and technological opportunities? Answer: DoDI 5000.02, "Operation of the Defense Acquisition System."
  4. What does the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) require the DoD to do? Answer: NEPA requires the DoD to assess all acquisition programs, regardless of size, to determine their environmental impact.
  5. What is the DoD's primary resource allocation process described as "calendar-driven"? Answer: The Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) system.
  1. Does DoDI 5000.02 specify characteristics for acquisition categories? Answer: True.
  2. Which institution issues directives, regulations, and formulates national security policy? Answer: The Executive Branch.
  3. Who is the Defense Acquisition Executive? Answer: The Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics (USD(AT&L)).
  4. Which Acquisition Category (ACAT) is specific to the Navy and Marines? Answer: ACAT IV.
  5. What did the adoption of the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) enable the DoD to do? Answer: Shift from a threat-based approach to a capabilities-based approach for identifying warfighter requirements.
  6. Which body supports the Joint Requirements Oversight Council (JROC) by integrating stakeholder views in capabilities planning? Answer: The Functional Capabilities Board (FCB).
  7. What is the responsibility of Requirements Managers? Answer: Identifying operational performance requirements.

Answer: Defense Acquisition Management Information Retrieval (DAMIR).

  1. What information can the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) consider at the Development Request for Proposal Release Decision (DRFPRD)? Answer: A validated and approved Capability Development Document (CDD).
  2. What authorizes entry into the Production and Deployment phase? Answer: A Milestone C decision.
  3. Which document approves the Operations and Support Phase after the production or deployment decision? Answer: The Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP).
  4. What is a key characteristic of Program-Level Integrated Project Teams (IPTs)? Answer: They focus on program execution.
  5. During which team developmental stage is harmony achieved by avoiding conflict? Answer: The Norming stage.
  6. What tool is used to establish the need, purpose, and scope for a team? Answer: A Charter.
  7. What are the two principal considerations of team decision-making? Answer: Consensus and ethical decision-making.
  8. How many system-level formats are provided in MIL-STD-881C?

Answer: 11.

  1. What is the purpose of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? Answer: To develop program and technical plans through the systems engineering process.
  2. Do contractors use the Contract Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) to define work packages? Answer: True.
  3. Who controls and maintains the Program Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? Answer: The Program Management Office (PMO).
  4. What is the goal of a WBS in relation to the Acquisition Life Cycle? Answer: To define the logical relationship among all program elements to a specified level.
  5. What term describes the legal reservation of funds for future payments? Answer: Obligation.
  6. What is the purpose of a Life Cycle Cost Estimate (LCCE)? Answer: To acquire funding for a system throughout its lifespan.
  7. Which cost estimating technique is suitable for a program nearing a Milestone C decision with detailed labor and material estimates available? Answer: Actual Costs.
  8. Which appropriations category funds programs approved for production?
  1. Who can approve the realignment of funds below the level of control for an appropriation category? Answer: The Program Manager.
  2. Which cost estimating technique is suitable for a program early in the Engineering and Manufacturing Development phase needing a quick estimate? Answer: Parametric.
  3. What does a contract define? Answer: The rights and responsibilities of each party.
  4. What must an offer include? Answer: Price, quantity, quality, and delivery requirements.
  5. Who handles procurement from pre-solicitation through contract award? Answer: The Procuring Contracting Officer (PCO).
  6. Which of the following is NOT a method of contracting? Answer: Unilateral contract action.
  7. Who oversees the source selection process and chooses the best-value proposal? Answer: The Source Selection Authority (SSA).
  8. What is one purpose of contract administration? Answer: Avoiding or eliminating overlap and duplication of Government contract administration efforts.
  1. What is one purpose of Earned Value Management (EVM)? Answer: To report performance information and evaluate progress for system acquisitions.
  2. Where are the 32 EVM system guidelines defined? Answer: In the ANSI/EIA-748 standard.
  3. What contractor information does EVM implementation provide to the Program Manager? Answer: Schedule, cost, and performance data.
  4. Which office is responsible for recognizing and accepting the contractor's EVM system? Answer: The Contract Management Office (CMO).
  5. What best describes the Integrated Baseline Review (IBR)? Answer: A joint risk assessment of the EVM Performance Measurement Baseline conducted by the Government and contractor.
  6. What is a function of EVM? Answer: Reporting performance goals.
  7. Which weapon system first used EVM? Answer: The Minuteman ICBM.
  8. What does the Contract Funds Status Report provide to Program Managers? Answer: Projected excess funding in contracts.
  9. What does the Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) provide?

Answer: Cyber operations.

  1. Who must collaborate for successful Science and Technology (S&T) transitioning? Answer: The R&D Community and the DoD.
  2. What is the objective of the Science and Technology program? Answer: To create or exploit scientific breakthroughs and guard against technological surprise.
  3. During which life cycle phases are candidate technologies reviewed for benefits and risks? Answer: Materiel Solution Analysis and Technology Maturation & Risk Reduction.
  4. What best describes Test and Evaluation (T&E)? Answer: Ensuring the system meets capability needs.
  5. Which type of Operational Test and Evaluation occurs after the Full-Rate Production Decision? Answer: Follow-On Operational Test and Evaluation.
  6. When must the Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) be developed? Answer: Before Milestone A and updated before each subsequent review.
  7. Is T&E used to identify technical risk and validate system utility throughout the acquisition life cycle? Answer: True.
  8. Which statement best describes life cycle logistics?

Answer: Logistics is an inherent part of the system's design, development, testing, and production.

  1. What are strategies of life cycle sustainment? Answer: Comprehensive and early planning, development, and implementation.
  2. Why is designing for sustainment critical for military equipment? Answer: The average age of military equipment is expected to be 54 years.
  3. Is the DoD Product Support Business Model (PSBM) a one-time process? Answer: False.
  4. Should logisticians and engineers understand system missions and capabilities for sustainment analyses? Answer: True.
  5. If the total elapsed time for corrective maintenance is 1,200 hours with 60 actions, what is the Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)? Answer: 20 hours.
  6. What is the importance of process efficiency? Answer: The ability to transform inputs into outputs at the lowest cost.
  7. What is the primary objective of the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase? Answer: To develop the product baseline and transform the preliminary design into a producible design.

Answer: To generate code that tells a computer system what outputs to produce given certain inputs.

  1. Which is a generic classification of a DoD Software-Intensive System? Answer: Defense Business System.
  2. What is a key thrust of the Clinger-Cohen Act? Answer: Greater accountability for systems improvements achieved through Information Technology (IT).
  3. Which viewpoint does the DoD define to address interoperability concerns? Answer: Operational.
  4. In which development paradigm should special emphasis be placed on the last increment? Answer: Incremental Development Paradigm.
  5. Is the Software Development Process concurrent with the Systems Engineering Process? Answer: True.
  6. Which is NOT an example of a Quality Measure? Answer: Software Size.
  7. What percentage of software system life cycle costs do Post-Deployment Software Support (PDSS) activities represent? Answer: The greatest percentage.
  8. Which factors can increase costs and cause production delays?

Answer: Late design releases, lack of production planning, and changing design requirements.

  1. When is the impact of design instability particularly significant? Answer: During the fabrication of parts.
  2. What are factors that can increase costs and delays in the Systems Engineering Process? Answer: Lack of production planning, changing design requirements, and late design releases.
  3. What is the missing "M" in the 5Ms (manpower, measurement, method, material)? Answer: Machinery.
  4. What is the number-one driver of labor costs? Answer: Assembly.
  5. Can contractors define their own quality management process if it meets program objectives? Answer: True.
  6. How long does the facilities infrastructure support element typically take for a weapons system deployment? Answer: 5 to 7 years.
  7. Is Facilities Engineering a multi-disciplinary acquisition process? Answer: True.
  8. Do facilities engineers execute billions of dollars in projects annually?

Answer: Market boom and recession.

  1. How are remaining firms addressing market uncertainty today? Answer: All of the above (developing alliances, emphasizing branding, leveraging opportunities).
  2. Is industry more agile than the Government in making structural changes? Answer: True.
  3. Which organization manages National Intelligence at the departmental level? Answer: The Director of National Intelligence.
  4. What is VOLT? Answer: Validated Online Lifecycle Threat.
  5. Which reference covers Counterintelligence? Answer: DoDD 5240.02.
  6. Which directives require Program Protection Plans (PPPs)? Answer: DoDI 5200.39 and DoDI 5000.02.
  7. Which are Service Elements under USCYBERCOM? Answer: USN - Fleet Cyber Command (FLTCYBERCOM)

USA - Army Forces Cyber Command (ARFORCYBER) USMC - Marine Forces Cyber Command (MARFORCYBER) USCG - Coast Guard Cyber Command (CGCYBER) USAF - 24th Air Force

  1. Which organization centralizes DoD Counterintelligence (CI) activities? Answer: The Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
  2. Is the Program Protection Plan (PPP) the milestone document for program protection activities? Answer: True.
  3. What completes the definition of cybersecurity? Answer: Authentication.
  4. Who should request a CI analysis for a program with Critical Program Information (CPI)? Answer: The Program Manager (PM).
  5. Which reference requires Program Managers to submit a cybersecurity strategy? Answer: DoDI 5000.02.
  6. What do CI organizations need to determine the foreign collection threat? Answer: The program acquisition strategy.