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CWB Level 2 Study Questions and Verified Answers Test, Exams of Welding Inspection Technologies

Hobart Institute of Welding Technology Welding Inspection Technologies

Visual Welding Inspector Certification CWB Level 2 Study Questions and Verified Answers Test

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/17/2025

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CWB Level 2 Study Questions and Verified Answers Test

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1. In parallel electrical circuits, the voltage across each resistor is the same

since each path is connected to the same voltage source. Select the correct

statement.

A.

in each parallel path the resistance must be equalized to create equal

voltage.

B.

the current flowing in each parallel path must be the same as the voltage.

C.

the current flowing in each parallel path depends on the resistance in

each path

D.

the current flowing in each parallel path depends on the capacitance in each

path: C. the current flowing in each parallel path depends on the resistance in each

path

2. The duty cycle of a welding power supply is based upon delivering its rated

output for a given number of minutes. Which of the following statements is

correct.

A. a 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 300 amps for 6 minutes

in a ten minute period

B. a 300 amp/30% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 300 amps in a ten

minute period

C. a 250 amp/30% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 250 amps for 30

minutes separated by 10 minutes at rest

D. a 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 500 amps maximum

for 6 minutes in a ten minute period: A. a 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is

rated to deliver 300 amps for 6 minutes in a ten minute period

3. Conventional transformer-rectifiers;

A.

convert direct current into alternating current

B.

convert alternating current into direct current

C.

convert alternating current into pulsed current

D.

convert direct current into pulsed current: B. convert alternating current into

direct current

4. A conventional diode placed in a circuit allows the passage of current in one

direction only. A silicon controlled rectifier(SCR) operates slightly differently.

How does it work?

A.

an SCR conducts current in both directions until turned on and current flow

is then prevented

B.

an SCR is non-conductive until turned onland then allows current to flow

in both directions

C.

an SCR is non-conductive until turned on, allowing current to flow in one

Partial preview of the text

Download CWB Level 2 Study Questions and Verified Answers Test and more Exams Welding Inspection Technologies in PDF only on Docsity!

In parallel electrical circuits, the voltage across each resistor is the same since each path is connected to the same voltage source. Select the correct statement. A. in each parallel path the resistance must be equalized to create equal voltage. B. the current flowing in each parallel path must be the same as the voltage. C. the current flowing in each parallel path depends on the resistance in each path D. the current flowing in each parallel path depends on the capacitance in each path: C. the current flowing in each parallel path depends on the resistance in each path
The duty cycle of a welding power supply is based upon delivering its rated output for a given number of minutes. Which of the following statements is correct. A. a 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 300 amps for 6 minutes in a ten minute period B. a 300 amp/30% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 300 amps in a ten minute period C. a 250 amp/30% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 250 amps for 30 minutes separated by 10 minutes at rest D. a 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 500 amps maximum for 6 minutes in a ten minute period: A. a 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 300 amps for 6 minutes in a ten minute period
Conventional transformer-rectifiers; A. convert direct current into alternating current B. convert alternating current into direct current C. convert alternating current into pulsed current D. convert direct current into pulsed current: B. convert alternating current into direct current
A conventional diode placed in a circuit allows the passage of current in one direction only. A silicon controlled rectifier(SCR) operates slightly differently. How does it work? A. an SCR conducts current in both directions until turned on and current flow is then prevented B. an SCR is non-conductive until turned onland then allows current to flow in both directions C. an SCR is non-conductive until turned on, allowing current to flow in one

direction only until the flow of current stops: C. an SCR is non-conductive until turned on, allowing current to flow in one direction only until the flow of current stops

What is the term for voltage measured across the output terminals of a welding machine when no current is being drawn? A. diode voltage B. operating voltage C. open circuit voltage D. terminal voltage: C. open circuit voltage
A 60% duty cycle means that the power supply can deliver its rated output for: A 60% of the rated output only B. 60% over the rated output followed by 4 minutes at rest C. 6 minutes at rest followed by 4 minutes at rated output D. 6 minutes at rated output followed by 4 minutes at rest: D. 6 minutes at rated output followed by 4 minutes at rest
One of the simplest ways of controlling the output of a welding transformer is to change the efficiency of coupling between the primary and secondary coils. How can this be done? A) slide a piece of wood between the primary and the secondary coils B) design the transformer with either a moving core or moving primary coils C) design the transformer with a number of taps to select different output curves D) use the timed firing of SCR's to control total conduction time: B. design the transformer with either a moving core or moving primary coils
When choosing between AC and DC output; A. the process generally determines the type of current B. high current output machines are always both AC/DC C. DC is generally used for very high output applications D. most supplies are equipped with constant voltage/constant current op- tions: A. the process generally determines the type of current
Which of the following metals has the lowest electrical resistivity? A aluminum B. tungsten C. copper D. iron: C. copper

sent in alternating current arcs.: B. outputs high voltage, low current to create and maintain a stable conductive path for the flow of power

Gases are not normally electrically conductive. To start an arc; A. requires high voltage B. requires high inductance 'C. requires high current D. requires AC power: A. requires high voltage
What voltage is required to cause 5 amps of current to flow through a resistance of 22 ohms? A. 110 volts B. 0.22 volts C. 4.4 volts D. 5 volts: A. 110 volts
What type of output is usually required for Gas Tungsten Arc Welding? A. constant voltage B. high frequency C. low power factor D. low duty cycle E. constant current: E. constant current
In GTAW, the high frequency unit increases the incoming AC line voltage to several thousand volts. Select the correct statement. A. systems are limited to less than 4,000 volts for safety reasons B. the spark gap needs to be at least 75mm (3") wide for the spark to create the arc C. high frequency systems output high voltage but only at low current flow D. high frequency systems only work with inverter based direct current arcs: C. high frequency systems output high voltage but only at low current flow
How is a thyrister or SCR (silicon controlled rectifier) turned on? A. by reversing current through the junction B. by a signal called a "gate pulse" C. SCR's must be switched mechanically D. by a capacitor linked to a high frequency generator: B. by a signal called a "gate pulse"
If a transformer secondary coil has fewer turns than the primary coil, it is described as; A. an autotransformer B. a step-up transformer C. a step-down transformer D. a rectifying transformer: C. a step-down transformer

Conventional transformer-rectifiers; A. convert high frequency current into lower voltage output B. convert alternating current into direct current at lower than line voltage C. convert low voltage directcurrent into high frequency alternating current D. convert high voltage alternating current into low voltage, high frequency direct current: D. convert high voltage alternating current into low voltage, high frequency direct current
The percentage of the electrode weight derived from the coating in lightly coated electrodes is: A) 10-20% b)20-35% c)25-40% d)up to 55%: A)10-20%
When classifying Stainless Steel SMAW electrodes the last number in the designation (E316-16) refers to the: a) Position of welding b) Alloy type c) Flux type (basic ,acid or rutile) d) Core wire composition: c) Flux type (basic ,acid or rutile)
E49XT-1 Electrodes are designed for: a) Vertical up welding only b) All positions except V-down c) Welding with C02 shielding gas only d) Welding in the overhead position with electrodes 3.2 mm (1/8")or larger: c) Welding with C02 shielding gas only
Rutile type flux cored electrodes operate on: a) DCEN and give a globular type arc b) DCEP and give a globular type arc c) DCEN and give a spray type arc d) DCEP and give a spray type arc: d) DCEP and give a spray type arc
Which of the following gases is required to achieve spray transfer when welding carbon steels? a) Argon b) Carbon-dioxide c) Helium d) Nitrogen: a) Argon
For the ER49S-G classification, the chemistry requirements of the elec- trode: a) are specified by the welding supervisor

CSA W59 recommends that basic electrodes should be stored in a holding oven at a minimum temperature of: a) 80C b) 50C c) 120C d) 230C e) 430C: c) 120C
E49XT-3 wires are classified with: a) No external shielding gas b )High helium gases c) High Ar based gases d) 100% of co2: a) No external shielding gas
Submerged arc welding fluxes perform functions similar to those used on shielded metal arc welding electrodes however they are designed to handle: a) Lower amperage ranges b) Currents over 2000 amps c) Higher extrusion pressures d) Only direct current electrodes: b) Currents over 2000 amps
When defining the position of capability for FCAW stainless steel elec- trodes a "O" indicates the electrode can be used for: a) All position welding b) Vertical down fillets and grooves only c) Flat grooves and horizontal fillets only d) Overhead fillets and grooves only: c) Flat grooves and horizontal fillets only
Basic type flux cored electrodes operate on: a) DCEP only and give a smooth spray type arc b) DCEP and DCEN and are characterized by globular transfer c) DCEN only and are characterized by globular transfer d) DCEP only and give a rough spray type arc: b) DCEP and DCEN and are characterized by globular transfer
Which of the following is considered to be a Low Alloy Steel Electrode? a) E b) E c) E d) E4918-A e) E7018-R: d) E4918-A

The toughness of submerged arc welding weldments is affected when is present in the weld a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Aluminum d) co2: b) Oxygen
Welds made with self-shielded electrodes can suffer from excessive nitro- gen absorption. Excessive nitrogen in the weld pool will result in: a) Gross porosity during solidification b) Oxides that are removed by the fluxing action c) No noticeable weld deposit defects d) Cracking in the centre of the weld deposit: a) Gross porosity during solidifica- tion
When welding aluminum with the gas tungsten arc process using a pure tungsten electrode a ball is formed on the end. This is accomplished by: a) Striking an arc on a steel block using DCEP polarity b) Striking an arc on a copper block using AC or DCEP polarity c) Striking an arc on the aluminum using DCRP d) Grinding a ball on the end of the tungsten: b) Striking an arc on a copper block using AC or DCEP polarity
Gas metal arc welding electrodes for welding aluminum have a wider range of alloys available than shielded metal arc welding. Which series of alloys is available for gas metal arc welding but not available for shielded metal arc welding? a) 5xxx b) 9xxx c) 4xxx d) 3xxx: a) 5xxx
What does the third digit (E4918) in the identification system of covered electrodes represent? a) Weld deposit strength b) Type of coating c) Position of welding d) Type of current: c) Position of welding
What is taconite?: Iron ore
In the electric furnace, what provides the heat to melt the metal charge?: An arc between carbon electrodes and the metal

The elements in alloy tool steels can form small hard particles which provide wear resistance and limit tempering. What Is the name of the parti- cles?: Carbides
The plates for pressure vessel are usually formed with the direction:: - Around the circumference
What Is the usual charge In an electric furnace?: Completely scrap
To what types of steel is sulphur along with lead deliberately added?: Free machining steels
Considering that increasing the heat input will reduce the cooling rate, is the following statement true or false? "For thick plates, the cooling rate is inversely proportional to the heat input."- : True
In the metal adjacent to the weld pool certain metallurgical changes will occur. What is the condition which will determine what metallurgical changes will occur?: The peak temperature reached
Complete the following statement - "Regions that are close to the fusion boundary can experience temperatures sufficiently high enough that growth of the ........................occurs.": Austenitic grains
Complete the following statement - "In the heat affected zone of a carbon steel weld fast cooling rates will form a hard ............................................ ": Martensitic structure
Which of the following types of steel is the least susceptible to hydrogen cracking in normal circumstances: a) Most carbon and steels used for structural. b) carbon manganese steels used for structural and pressure vessel applica- tions. c) Carbon and low alloy steels with a carbon content of about 0.10% or less. d) Alloyed steels with more than 0.10% carbon.: c) Carbon and low alloy steels with a carbon content of about 0.10% or less
Centreline solidification cracking is most likely caused by:: Welding too fast
When a carbon steel weldment is stress relieved at 625°C are there any major changes in the microstructure?: No
Why would a multipass weld normally be tougher than a single pass weld?: because the heat from one pass refines the grains of the previous pass
Complete the following sentence - When a metal is subjected to load it will be resisted by internal forces within

the metal. The intensity of these forces through a given plane is known as

. ................................ ".: Stress

"Strain is the extension divided by the original length. "True or false?: True
If a plot of stress against strain is made for a bar that undergoes plastic deformation, the stress at which a permanent set is first recorded when the bar is unloaded is known as - : Elastic limit
"Stress is the load divided by the original cross-sectional area." True or false?: True
Complete the following sentence - "If it is desired to measure the strain during a test, an .............. .is placed on the specimen.": Extensometer
What is the purpose of a nick break test?: To reveal internal weld defects
Name the three types of hardness testing machines.: Brinell, Vickers, Rock- well
Complete the following statement - "It is essential that there be no friction in the loading system of the machine or a .............load will result.": Lighter
When making a hardness test, the thickness of the specimen is very important. As a rule, the thickness should be - : Ten times the depth of the impression
Complete the following sentence - "The most common toughness test is the .................... in which a notched specimen is broken by a swinging pendulum and the amount of energy required to break the specimen is recorded.": Charpy Impact test
"If the fractured ends of an impact test specimen are examined, it is seen that brittle specimens breaking with low energy have a flat crystalline fracture showing many shiny facets." True or false?: True
"The drop weight test is a test for the toughness of the steel and is not used for measuring toughness of weld metal or the heat affected zone." True or false?: True
High hardness values on steel can generally be related to:: High strength and low ductility
Impact tests measure the:: energy required to break a specimen
A guided root bend test on a weld would best reveal:: lack of penetration and fusion
Charpy test values:: are used for qualification and quality control checks

If a plate of austenitic stainless steel is cold formed it experiences-: A greater spring-back than a comparable plate of carbon steel
Weld decay is caused by-: chromium depletion at the grain boundaries due to carbide precipitation
There is an increased risk of weld metal fissuring when-: the primary solid to form on solidification is austenite
On the Delong diagram the amount of ferrite is indicated by-: the ferrite number
Which of the following is likely to result in cracking due to martensite formation?: E48018 (mild steel) weld metal deposited over E308 weld metal
Which of the following processes would not be recommended for welding type 304 stainless steel?: GMAW with C02 shielding
An unstabilized stainless steel with 0.15% carbon has been welded. What heat treatment could be applied to prevent weld decay in service?: solution treatment at 1100°C followed by a rapid cool
List three disadvantages of radiography over other inspection methods.- : Bulky equipment, special safety precautions, some defects not reliably detected
Do y rays generally have a greater or lesser ability to penetrate thick steel than X-rays?: Greater
List three disadvantages of y ray over X-ray radiography.: - Radiation emit- ted continuously

Radiation hazard
Penetrating power cannot be adjusted Equipment comparatively fragile
Radioisotope decays In activity requiring replacement
Radiographic contrast generally Electrical hazard from high less than X-ray

For a given intensity of X-rays striking a specimen, what are the two main factors that affect the intensity that emerges from the specimen to strike the film?: Thickness and type of material
Which of the following conditions gives the better image contrast? a) A low energy level with an adequately long exposure time b) A high energy level with a shorter exposure time: a) A low energy level with an adequately long exposure time
Place the following in order of increasing absorption of X-rays: Steel-Tungsten-Welding slag: Welding slag, steel, tungsten
"The only thing that causes fuzziness at the edge of an image is geometric unsharpness.'': False, fuzziness Is also caused by inherent unsharpness and scattering
What is the simplest way of reducing the geometrical unsharpness for a given plate and X-ray machine?: Increase the obJect (plate)-to-source distance

''The purpose of the IOI Is to verify that all defects greater than 2% of the plate thickness have been detected.": False
If it is not possible to place the IQI on the source side of the specimen, what can be done? a) Place the IQI on the film side but reduce the IOI by one size b) Place the IQI on the film side and use the same IQI size as you would on the source side c) Nothing, you cannot take a radiograph unless the IQI Is on the source side: a) Place the IQI on the film side but reduce the IOI by one size
Some dark crack-like Indications appear on a radiograph. If they are not due to cracks in the actual specimen what else could they result from?: Scratches or cracks Jn the lead Intensifying screens.
What is the specified range of density of a radiograph according to CSA W59-89?: 1.5 to 3.
"Since radiography Is a volumetric method the condition of the surface Is not an Important factor.": False
How would you distinguish spatter from porosity on a radiograph?: Spat- ter appears white or fight and may cover the base metal as well as the weld. Porosity is normally confined ro the weld metal and appears dark
"Radiography is not recommended by CSA W59 for fillet welds.": True
Which of the following defects could most likely be missed by radiogra- phy: a) A crack b) Porosity c) Slag inclusions: a) A crack
How may shots would be required to radiograph a splice weld In a rectan- gular hollow structural section where there Is no access to the inside?: Four
What is the recommended delay after welding before doing radiography on high restraint joints (according to CSA W59-M1989)?: 48 hours
If a product is to be stress relieved why is it important to use exactly the same procedure for radiography after stress relief as is used before?: So that borderline indicatlons are not Interpreted differently before and after stress relief
When doing spot radiography according to CSA W59-M1989 what mini- mum length of weld must each spot show? a) 50 mm b) 100 mm c) 200 mm: b) 100 mm

b) 15 kHz c) 15 MHz: b) 15 kHz

What Is a typical frequency of ultrasonic testing of welds? a) 2.25 MHz b) 2.25 kHz c) 2.25 Hz: b) 2.25 kHz
If an ultrasonic wave In a block of steel has a wavelength of 1.3 mm and travels at a velocity of 5.85x10' m's, calcuiate the frequency.: 4.5 MHz
Do transverse waves In a solid travel faster or slower than longltudlnal waves?: Slower
The energy earned by a wave Is proportional to the square of the ampli- tude.: True
tf the amplitude of a wave Is reduced to 25% what is the corresponding drop In dB?: 12dB
The decrease In energy of an ulraaonic wave as It travels through a material is known as. a) amplitude b) amplification c) attenuation: c) attenuation
What detennfnes the natural frequency of a given plezoetetrtc transduc- er? a) The amplitude of the voltage appled. b) The transducer thickness. c) The frequency Is set by the material being inspected and cannot be changed.: b) The transducer thickness.
Name one plezoelectric material.: Quartz, lithium sulphate.
an A-scan display the vertical displacement of the trace represents: a) the ampltude of the reflected wave b) the size of the reflector c) distance: a) the ampltude of the reflected wave
In A-scan display the horizontal displacement of the trace is calibrated to represent: a) the ampolitude of the reflected wave b) the size of the reflector c) distance: c) distance
In what units is the gain control (or attenuator) marked?: dB (decibels)
What type of display gives a cross-sectional view showing length and depth of discontinuities?: B-scan

Give an example when the entire specimen Is Immersed In water which acts as the couplant.: On-line examnation of plate for defects such as laminations in a steel mill
Acoustic emission relies on detecting very small amounts of mechanical energy released from such things as growing cracks or structural discontinuities under load.: True
Why does an ultrasonic wave get refraded when It travels from a plastic probe unit Into a steel specimen?: The velocity is different in the two materials
What type (mode) of waves is produced by an angle probe?: Transverse waves
The abiltyto detect small reflectors (sensitivity) Is Increased by: a) lncreastng the frequency b} decreasing the frequency c) Is not related to frequency: a) lncreastng the frequency
The ability of an ultrasonic test system to distinguish closely spaced reflectors Is known as: a) sensitivity b) resolution o) attenuation: b) resolution
Beam spread Is reduced by having a small ratio of wavelength to trans- ducer size.: True
The plate and weld surface must always be ground smooth prior to ultrasonic examination.: False
Why should most ultrasonic examinations of welds begin with a search of the plate with a normal probe?: To Identify plate defects such as laminations that could interfere with examination of the weld with an angle probe
When using an angle probe, when would It be necessary to bounce the beam off the back wall? a) The beam cannot bounce off the back wall b) This tech should not be used. c) To examine parts of the weld that cannot be accessed by the beam direct- ly.: c) To examine parts of the weld that cannot be accessed by the beam directly.
Difficulties with UT can arise when welds have backing bars due to reflections from corners, internal reflection in the bars, etc.: True
Which of the following rmaterials requires special techniques for UT examination? a) Carbon steel used in a pressure vessel. b) Austenltlc statntess steel. c) Structural steel for bridges.: b) Austenltlc statntess steel.

b) measuring between the two points where the indication has desappeared. c) measuring between the two points where the amplitude drops to 50% of its maximum valve: c) measuring between the two points where the amplitude drops to 50% of its maximum valve.

When using the CSA WS9-M1989 procedure how is the effect of attenua- tion taken into account? a) By assuming a loss of 1 dB per 12. 7 mm of sound path greater than 25. mm. b) By determining the DAC curve. c) Attenuation is neglected: a) By assuming a loss of 1 dB per 12. 7 mm of sound path greater than 25.4 mm.
When following ASME procedure, does the size of the side hole used for setting the reference level, depend on weld thickness?: Yes
Is a DAC curve required for ASME procedures?: Yes
For imperfections interpreted as lack of fusion, what is the maximum acceptable length according to ASME Section VIII Div. 1? a) 20 mm b) 1/3T (T la weld thickness). c) Unacceptable regardless of length.: c) Unacceptable regardless of length.
Chromium stabirizes the form of iron: BCC
Nickel stabTiizes the form of iron: FCC
The property of liquids that makes them try to reduce their surface area is known as: a) Capillary action b) Surface tension c) Viscosity: b) Surface tension
The ability of a liquid to wet a solid surface can be measured in terms of the contact angle.: True
The phenomenon by which water rises up a narrow tube or by which a liquid can penetrate a crack is known as: a) Capillary action b) Surface tension c) Viscosity: a) Capillary action
How must a fluorescent dye be viewed?: Under black light
Which of the following penetrants require treatment with a separate agent before the excess can be removed? a) Post-emulsifiable b) Water-washable

c) Post-remover d) Solvent-removable: a) Post-emulsifiable c) Post-remover

What type of developer is normally used with the solvent-removal process for spot checking of welds?: Non-aqueous
The fluorescent postemulsified penetrant process is often recommended for high sensitivity applications such as detection of fatigue cracks.: True
Does the Liquld penetrant process work on stainless steel and alu- minum?: Yes
Give one way in which a change to a liquid penetrant procedure could be qualified.: Use a comparator block
According to ASTM E-165, the surface temperature for liquid penetrant inspection should not be outside the range: a) 12 to 52C (60 to 125F) b) 21 to 24C (70 to 75F) c) - 18 to 38C (0 to 100F): a) 12 to 52C (60 to 125F)
When using the solvent-removable method why should the solvent not be sprayed directly on the all surface to remove excess penetrant?: It may leach penetrant out of discontinuities
When using post-emulsiflable penetrants, the emulsifier must remain in contact with the surface long enough to mix with the excess penetrant but not long enough to reach penetrant in the discontinuities.: True
What could be the effect of spraying on too much developer?: It could mask indications
What is the difference between a false indication and a nonrelevant indication?: False Indications are not associated with discontinuities, nonrefevant indications are
What Is the most likely cause of false indications?: Poor cleaning
Which of the following indications is most likely to be caused by a crack? a) Rounded b) Diffused or weak c) Continuous line: c) Continuous line
Which of the following indications is most likely to be caused by porosi- ty? a) Rounded b) Diffused or weak c) Continuous line: a) Rounded
According to CSA W59 the criteria used for evaluating liquid penetrant testing are the same as those for:

CWB Level 2 Study Questions and Verified Answers Test, Exams of Welding Inspection Technologies

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