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CSU BMS 300 Final Exam: 152 Correct Questions & Answers, Exams of Health Physics

A comprehensive set of 152 multiple-choice questions and answers covering various topics in the field of biology, particularly focusing on cellular processes, molecular biology, and human physiology. It serves as a valuable resource for students preparing for their final exam in bms 300, offering a wide range of questions to test their understanding of key concepts.

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CSU BMS 300 Final Exam 152 Correct Questions & Answers.
Which of the following bonds are responsible for the dipole moment of a water molecule?
a. hydrogen bonds
b. ionic bonds
c. polar bonds
d. covalent bonds - ✔✔✔ d. covalent bonds
There are currently clinical trials researching the efficacy of mRNA vaccines to protect
against HIV, Zika, rabies, and Ebola viruses. Upon injection of an mRNA vaccine, mRNA
would be read:
a. 3'-5' by the large ribosomal subunit
b. 5'-3' by the large ribosomal subunit
c. 3'-5' by the small ribosomal subunit
d. 5'-3' by the small ribosomal subunit - ✔✔✔ d. 5'-3' by the small ribosomal subunit
Which of the following may contain a nuclear localization factor?
a. DNA, RNA, and histone proteins
b. DNA and RNA
c. RNA and polymerase proteins
d. DNA and secreted proteins - ✔✔✔ c. RNA and polymerase proteins
Which of the following ions has a higher intracellular concentration? a. Na+
b. Ca2+
c. Cl-
d. K+ - ✔✔✔ d. K+
Which polymerase is responsible for the production of mRNA?
a. RNA polymerase I
b. RNA polymerase II
c. RNA polymerase III
d. All of the above - ✔✔✔ b. RNA polymerase II
Which of the following proteins would have a signal peptide?
a. Na+/K+ ATPases
b. clathrin proteins
c. spliceosomes
d. myosin motor proteins - ✔✔✔ a. Na+/K+ ATPases
The DNA in mitochondria would be expected to be:
a. bound to histones
b. contained in a nucleus
c. organized in chromosomes
d. circular - ✔✔✔ d. circular
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pf4
pf5
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pf9
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pf12
pf13
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CSU BMS 300 Final Exam 152 Correct Questions & Answers.

Which of the following bonds are responsible for the dipole moment of a water molecule? a. hydrogen bonds b. ionic bonds c. polar bonds d. covalent bonds - ✔✔✔ d. covalent bonds There are currently clinical trials researching the efficacy of mRNA vaccines to protect against HIV, Zika, rabies, and Ebola viruses. Upon injection of an mRNA vaccine, mRNA would be read: a. 3'-5' by the large ribosomal subunit b. 5'-3' by the large ribosomal subunit c. 3'-5' by the small ribosomal subunit d. 5'-3' by the small ribosomal subunit - ✔✔✔ d. 5'-3' by the small ribosomal subunit Which of the following may contain a nuclear localization factor? a. DNA, RNA, and histone proteins b. DNA and RNA c. RNA and polymerase proteins d. DNA and secreted proteins - ✔✔✔ c. RNA and polymerase proteins Which of the following ions has a higher intracellular concentration? a. Na+ b. Ca2+ c. Cl- d. K+ - ✔✔✔ d. K+ Which polymerase is responsible for the production of mRNA? a. RNA polymerase I b. RNA polymerase II c. RNA polymerase III d. All of the above - ✔✔✔ b. RNA polymerase II Which of the following proteins would have a signal peptide? a. Na+/K+ ATPases b. clathrin proteins c. spliceosomes d. myosin motor proteins - ✔✔✔ a. Na+/K+ ATPases The DNA in mitochondria would be expected to be: a. bound to histones b. contained in a nucleus c. organized in chromosomes d. circular - ✔✔✔ d. circular

Between the time pre-mRNA is generated and the time when introns are removed, a type of RNA called SnoRNA adds a methyl group to some bases on the pre-mRNA. Where would you expect SnoRNA to function? a. ribosome b. nucleus c. rough endoplasmic reticulum d. cytoplasm - ✔✔✔ b. nucleus The R groups of an integral protein that interact with extracellular fluid are most likely: a. hydrophilic b. hydrophobic c. amphipathic d. phospholipids - ✔✔✔ a. hydrophilic Embryonic germ cells are transcriptionally dormant. You would expect these cells to have: a. high levels of spliceosomes b. DNA primarily in euchromatin form c. DNA primarily in heterochromatin form d. high levels ATP synthesis - ✔✔✔ c. DNA primarily in heterochromatin form AMPA receptors bind the neurotransmitter glutamate in the extracellular space. Binding opens the AMPA receptor and permits the movement of ions across the plasma membrane. AMPA receptors are examples of: a. voltage-gated channels b. ligand-gated channels c. mechanically-gated channels d. non-gated channels - ✔✔✔ b. ligand-gated channels Capsaicin is known as the "spicy molecule." After eating spicy food, you might reach for a glass of water to wash away the spice, but the water does nothing to curb the burning sensation in your mouth. You can assume that capsaicin is __________. a. amphipathic b. hydrophilic c. hydrophobic d. polar - ✔✔✔ c. hydrophobic Keratin, which is found in keratinocytes, is an example of a(n): a. ATPase b. actin filament c. intermediate filament d. secrete protein - ✔✔✔ c. intermediate filament Disruption of which of the following cellular processes could potentially lead to disease? a. post-translational modifications b. synthesis of transmembrane channels c. protein misfolding

In eukaryotic cells, enzymes that form phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides function in the: a. nucleus b. endoplasmic reticulum c. cytosol d. more than one answer is correct - ✔✔✔ a. nucleus For the bases CAT in DNA, the anticodon would be: a. CAT b. GTA c. UAC d. CAU - ✔✔✔ d. CAU Phosphorylation of protein channels increasing or decreasing permeability through that channel is an example of a: a. co-transcriptional modification b. post-transcriptional modification c. co-translational modification d. post-translational modification - ✔✔✔ d. post-translational modification A toxin that blocks the ability of dynein to cleave ATP to ADP + Pi would disrupt the: a. anterograde transport of vesicles on microtubules b. retrograde transport of vesicles on microtubules c. anterograde transport of vesicles on f-actin d. retrograde transport of vesicles on f-actin - ✔✔✔ b. retrograde transport of vesicles on microtubules Creatine phosphate: a. is only formed during strenuous exercise b. is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration c. cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP d. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue - ✔✔✔ d. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue SNARE complexes allow for exocytosis of vesicles. Which of the following proteins would be synthesized on a free ribosome? a. SNAP- 25 b. VAMP c. syntaxin d. synaptotagmin - ✔✔✔ a. SNAP- 25 Tunicamycin is an antibiotic that blocks the transfer of sugars onto amino acids during glycosylation. You would expect this antibiotic to have its effects in the: a. peroxisome b. Golgi apparatus c. lysosome

d. nucleus - ✔✔✔ b. Golgi apparatus Erythrocytes (red blood cells) are covered in heavily glycosylated proteins that become oxidized over time. Significant oxidation of these glycoproteins is a sign the erythrocyte is worn out. Macrophages in the spleen inspect the glycoproteins and will internalize the old erythrocytes by a process of: a. apoptosis b. exocytosis c. endocytosis d. pinocytosis - ✔✔✔ c. endocytosis During DNA replication, helicase is needed to unwind the double helix and pull apart the two strands of DNA. Helicase functions by breaking the: a. hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases b. phosphodiester bonds between 5 - carbon sugars c. hydrogen bonds between nucleosides d. covalent bonds between nitrogenous bases - ✔✔✔ a. hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases Which of the following is NOT a typical component of biological membranes in eukaryotic cells? a. proteins that span the lipid bilayer b. amphipathic molecules c. triglycerides d. phospholipids - ✔✔✔ c. triglycerides The Na+/H+ exchanger uses the energy of sodium moving down its gradient to push hydrogen against its concentration gradient. Which of the following is NOT true? The Na+/H+ exchanger: a. requires ATP to function b. is a counter-transporter c. is a secondary active transporter has at least four transmembrane domains - ✔✔✔ a. requires ATP to function Aquaporins are proteins that span the phospholipid bilayer of cells. What protein structure is MOST LIKELY associated with the transmembrane portion of the aquaporin channels? a. a sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds b. an amino acid chain with hydrogen bonds formed between the peptide bonds c. multiple protein subunits joined together by non-covalent forces d. an amino acid chain with hydrogen bonds between R groups - ✔✔✔ b. an amino acid chain with hydrogen bonds formed between the peptide bonds A deoxyribonucleoside contains all of the following EXCEPT a: a. nitrogenous base b. deoxyribose sugar c. phosphate group

c. a protein synthesized by fibrocytes in connective tissue proper d. all of the above - ✔✔✔ d. all of the above Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be found in connective tissue? a. chondrocytes b. melanocytes c. fibrocytes/fibroblasts d. osteocytes - ✔✔✔ b. melanocytes Which type of tissue would you expect to find in the integumentary system? a. epithelial tissue b. connective tissue c. nervous tissue d. all of the above - ✔✔✔ d. all of the above A hypodermic needle will enter the skin and pierce its layers in which order (from first to last): a. stratum corneum → stratum spinosum → stratum lucidum → stratum granulosum → stratum basale b. stratum corneum → stratum lucidum → stratum granulosum → stratum spinosum → stratum basale c. stratum basale → stratum spinosum → stratum lucidum → stratum granulosum → stratum corneum d. none of the above are correct. - ✔✔✔ b. stratum corneum → stratum lucidum → stratum granulosum → stratum spinosum → stratum basale The dermis has two distinct layers. What type of connective tissue makes up the papillary layer of the skin? a. loose reticular connective tissue b. dense regular connective tissue c. dense irregular connective tissue d. loose areolar connective tissue - ✔✔✔ d. loose areolar connective tissue A burn patient presents with charred, dry, and leathery skin with no pain. Based on those signs, identify the severity of their burn and the skin layer(s) affected. a. first degree burn; epidermis b. second degree burn; epidermis & upper regions of the dermis c. third degree burn; epidermis, dermis (all regions), & hypodermis d. b. or c. are correct - ✔✔✔ c. third degree burn; epidermis, dermis (all regions), & hypodermis What might you MOST LIKELY expect to find in the Stratum spinosum? a. elastin b. melanin c. melanocytes

d. more than one answer is correct - ✔✔✔ b. melanin Which of the following is NOT a function of the integument? a. produces exocrine secretions b. allows for the sensation of pressure c. helps regulate body temperature d. aids in respiratory gas exchange - ✔✔✔ d. aids in respiratory gas exchange Squamous cell carcinoma, which can appear as rough skin with open sores, may arise from: a. keratinocytes in the stratum corneum b. melanocytes in the stratum basale c. keratinocytes in the stratum basale d. keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum - ✔✔✔ d. keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum Epidermolysis bullosa (EB) is a group of rare diseases that cause the skin to blister easily. Which of the following proteins, if abnormal, would lead to junctional EB? a. keratin b. integrins c. collagen d. all of the above - ✔✔✔ b. integrins Which type of bone is cylindrical in shape and will move appendages (like the arm) when muscles attached to them contract? a. sesamoid bone b. long bone c. Flat bone d. short bone - ✔✔✔ b. long bone Where in the bone would you expect to find blood vessels and nerves? a. canaliculi b. only outside of the bone c. central (Haversian) canal d. lacunae - ✔✔✔ c. central (Haversian) canal Which of the following is secreted by osteoclasts? a. hydroxyapatite b. H+ ions c. collagen d. RANKL - ✔✔✔ b. H+ ions Which of the following can result in reduced bone density? a. early malnutrition b. low Vitamin D c. space flight

d. neural stimuli, hormonal stimuli - ✔✔✔ c. hormonal stimuli, neural stimuli Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to occur as a result of hydrophilic hormone binding to its receptor? a. hormone binding to a transmembrane receptor b. a decrease in intracellular cAMP c. increase in intercellular calcium concentrations d. hormone binding to an intracellular receptor - ✔✔✔ d. hormone binding to an intracellular receptor Pituitary Gigantism is typically caused by a tumor in the anterior pituitary gland leading to excess hormone secretion from these cells. Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with this condition? a. high of GH-IH b. low levels of GHRH c. low levels of somatomedins d. low levels of GH - ✔✔✔ c. low levels of somatomedins Some stimulating hormones released from the anterior pituitary can increase the basal metabolic rate. Which of the following is an example of such a hormone? a. T3 & T b. somatostatin c. TSH d. TRH - ✔✔✔ c. TSH Body odor is a result of bacterial growth in the secretions of the ______ glands in the integumentary system. a. holocrine b. merocrine c. autocrine d. apocrine - ✔✔✔ d. apocrine Calcium homeostasis is tightly regulated by the thyroid and parathyroid glands. The hormone(s) released to decrease calcium levels is/are: a. calcitonin b. parathyroid hormone c. Vitamin D d. both b. and c. are correct - ✔✔✔ a. calcitonin Which of the following would you expect as a result of iodine deficiency? a. Grave's disease b. diabetes insipidus c. Addison's disease d. myxedema - ✔✔✔ d. myxedema

Cushing's disease is caused by the excessive hormone secretion from the ___________. a. zona fasciculata b. adrenal medulla c. zona glomerulosa d. zona reticularis - ✔✔✔ a. zona fasciculata Insulin has a role in both adipose and muscle tissue. Which of the following will happen as a result of insulin binding to receptors in both of these tissues? a. synthesis of glycogen b. synthesis of glucose c. transport of glucose and fatty acids into the cell d. transport of amino acids into the cell - ✔✔✔ c. transport of glucose and fatty acids into the cell Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY response when you haven't eaten for a few hours and there is a decrease in your blood glucose levels? a. glycogen is broken down in the liver b. the adrenal cortex releases flight or fight hormones c. glucocorticoids act on the muscles to release amino acids d. stress hormones trigger breakdown of fatty acids in the adipose tissue - ✔✔✔ b. the adrenal cortex releases flight or fight hormones Which of the following hormones are synthesized in the pancreas and stimulate synthesis of glycogen and fat in the liver? a. somatostatin b. glucagon c. pancreatic polypeptide d. insulin - ✔✔✔ d. insulin Ca2+ binding to TnC subunit permits the transition of the thin filament from the ___________? a. closed to open state b. blocked to closed state c. open to closed state d. closed to blocked state - ✔✔✔ b. blocked to closed state A mutation to the Ca2+ binding region of calmodulin will MOST LIKELY result in ________________? a. inactivation of myosin light chain kinase b. phosphorylation of the regulatory light chain c. myosin cannot interact with actin d. none of the above - ✔✔✔ c. myosin cannot interact with actin A person with an RQ value of 1.0 is most likely ______________? a. resting for an hour b. going for a relaxing walk for an hourc. sprinting for 5 seconds

c. hyperpolarization Cyclic Nucleotide (HCN) gated Na+ channels d. b. and c. are correct - ✔✔✔ c. hyperpolarization Cyclic Nucleotide (HCN) gated Na+ channels Hypertrophic and dilated cardiomyopathies are MOST DIRECTLY caused by ____________? a. abnormally fast electrical activity of the heart b. abnormal force generation of the cardiomyocytes c. low flow of blood through the vessels d. abnormally slow electrical activity of the heart - ✔✔✔ b. abnormal force generation of the cardiomyocytes In the pressure volume loop, the end diastolic volume is MOST DIRECTLY indicative of the __________. a. preload b. afterload c. inotropy d. contractility - ✔✔✔ a. preload The greatest diameter and the lowest blood pressure would be found in the: a. vena cava b. aorta c. venules d. arterioles - ✔✔✔ a. vena cava The autonomic nervous system can ________ heart rate by causing ______ of the membrane potential of pacemaker cells. a. increase; greater hyperpolarization b. decrease; greater hyperpolarization c. decrease; reduced hyperpolarization d. none of the above - ✔✔✔ b. decrease; greater hyperpolarization Cardiac output can be increased by the following except _______________? a. increased venous return b. increased heart rate c. increased stroke volume d. increased end-systolic volume - ✔✔✔ d. increased end-systolic volume Ventricular filling is complete immediately after the ____ a. T wave b. QRS complex c. P wave d. P to T interval - ✔✔✔ c. P wave Which of the following pathological outcomes can occur rapidly and without warning?

a. heart attack b. cardiac arrest c. arthrosclerosis d. coronary artery disease - ✔✔✔ b. cardiac arrest

  1. A characteristic of the plasma membranes of the input regions of neurons is that they: a. contain voltage-gated channels b. may be myelinated c. contain ligand-gated channels d. conduct action potentials - ✔✔✔ c. contain ligand-gated channels A stain designed to specifically label the rough endoplasmic reticulum in neurons in the peripheral nervous system would be seen in: a. tracts b. nuclei c. nerves d. ganglia - ✔✔✔ d. ganglia Assuming the following proteins were synthesized simultaneously in a neuron, which would be the first to arrive at the output region? a. SNAP- 25 SNARE proteins b. voltage-gated calcium channels c. tubulin in microtubules d. myosin motor ATPases - ✔✔✔ b. voltage-gated calcium channels For a neuron at rest, the concentration of ______ is higher ______ than ______. a. Na+, outside the cell, inside the cell b. K+, outside the cell, inside the cell c. Ca2+, inside the cell, outside the cell d. Cl-, inside the cell, outside the cell - ✔✔✔ a. Na+, outside the cell, inside the cell In the central nervous system, the cell type that is responsible for maintaining the extracellular concentrations of ions and neurotransmitters is the: a. oligodendrocytes b. microglia c. astrocyte d. satellite cell - ✔✔✔ c. astrocyte The membrane potential seeks the equilibrium potential of the ion: a. with dominant permeability b. with more channels open c. with greater net movement d. all of the above - ✔✔✔ d. all of the above Which of the following is true regarding action potentials and graded potentials?

d. digestion - ✔✔✔ d. digestion Damage to the left side of the spinal cord above the level of the legs would cause which of the following clinical symptoms? a. loss of pain sensation in the left leg b. loss of proprioception in the right leg c. loss of fine touch in both legs d. loss of temperature sensation in right leg - ✔✔✔ d. loss of temperature sensation in right leg Type II pneumocytes produce surfactant which lowers the surface tension of the lungs. Where are these cells located? a. in the alveoli b. in the pulmonary capillaries c. in the interstitial spaces of the respiratory membrane d. in the trachea and other conducting zones - ✔✔✔ a. in the alveoli Females have an increased risk of urinary tract infections because of: a. the proximity of the ureters to the vagina b. the ureters anterior position to the rectum c. the length of the urethra d. all of the above - ✔✔✔ c. the length of the urethra __________ are secreted proteins that function as signaling molecules via autocrine, endocrine, and paracrine signaling. a. pattern-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) b. damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) c. cytokines d. cluster of differentiation (CD) molecules - ✔✔✔ c. cytokines Which of the following conditions affecting the binding between oxygen and hemoglobin would decrease the affinity and make more oxygen available in the plasma? a. decreased pH b. decreased temperature c. decreased pCO d. all of the above - ✔✔✔ a. decreased pH During urine formation, most of the tubular reabsorption and secretion in the renal tubules occurs in the: a. papillary duct b. collecting duct c. proximal convoluted tubule d. distal convoluted tubule - ✔✔✔ c. proximal convoluted tubule

Which region of the antibody would you expect to find embedded in the plasma membrane of a naïve B cell? a. variable region b. constant region c. joining region d. none of the above - ✔✔✔ b. constant region Which of the following is an effect of short-term stress on the urinary system? a. increased Na+ retention b. increased water retention c. decreased blood volume d. decreased urine output - ✔✔✔ d. decreased urine output The __________ secrete erythropoietin (EPO) to trigger erythropoiesis. a. macula densa cells b. pericytes c. juxtaglomerular cells d. endothelial cells - ✔✔✔ b. pericytes A drop in the glomerular hydrostatic pressure would be detected by the __________ that surround the afferent arterioles. a. simple squamous epithelia b. mesangial cells c. juxtaglomerular cells d. macula densa cells - ✔✔✔ c. juxtaglomerular cells _______ is expressed by professional antigen-presenting cells that have seen danger. a. CD b. CD c. B d. B8 - ✔✔✔ c. B The transport of two substances across a membrane in the same direction where at least one of them is moved from a higher concentration to a lower concentration is an examples of: a. facilitated diffusion b. co-transport c. counter transport d. facilitated diffusion - ✔✔✔ b. co-transport Which of the following stores urine? a. kidney b. urethra c. ureters d. bladder - ✔✔✔ d. bladder

d. all of the above - ✔✔✔ c. decreased blood pressure If an enzyme in blood enhances the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin, how would you expect the O2 dissociation curve to change? a. the curve shifts to the left b. the curve shifts to the right c. the curve does not shift d. there is not enough information to determine - ✔✔✔ a. the curve shifts to the left The Bohr Effect reduces oxygen binding affinity as a result of more carbon dioxide binding to hemoglobin. The Bohr Effect occurs in the:: a. Pulmonary capillaries b. Systemic capillaries c. Both a. and b. d. None of the above - ✔✔✔ b. Systemic capillaries

  1. Central chemoreceptors in the brainstem will increase the rate of ventilation after directly sensing:: a. A decrease in O b. An increase in CO c. A decrease in CO d. An increase in H+ - ✔✔✔ d. An increase in H+ An infection in which of the following would indicate that the respiratory zone has been affected? a. pharynx b. bronchi c. trachea d. alveolar sac - ✔✔✔ d. alveolar sac Proteins in the urine may be indicative of: a. diabetes mellitus b. urinary tract infection c. jaundice d. hypertension - ✔✔✔ d. hypertension Which of the following is NOT an antigen-presenting cell? a. neutrophil b. macrophage c. dendritic cell d. naïve B-lymphocyte - ✔✔✔ a. neutrophil Where does erythrocyte destruction occur? a. white pulp of the spleen b. yellow bone marrow

c. red bone marrow d. red pulp of the spleen - ✔✔✔ d. red pulp of the spleen Which of the following cells would be CD8 positive (CD8+)? a. cytotoxic T-lymphocyte b. T-helper cells c. B-lymphocyte d. memory B-cells - ✔✔✔ a. cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

  1. Which of the following will facilitate the maturation of the common lymphoid progenitor cells into naïve B-lymphocytes? a. stromal cells b. pericytes c. erythropoietin d. memory B-cells - ✔✔✔ a. stromal cells __________ capillaries will be found in the glomerulus. a. continuous b. fenestrated c. sinusoidal d. none of the above - ✔✔✔ b. fenestrated While examining histology slides of the kidney, you find cuboidal cells with microvilli. This would most likely be in the __________. a. papillary duct b. collecting duct c. proximal convoluted tubule d. distal convoluted tubule - ✔✔✔ c. proximal convoluted tubule Passive expiration involves: a. contraction of the abdominal muscles b. contraction of the intercostal muscles c. contraction of the respiratory diaphragm muscle d. None of the above - ✔✔✔ d. None of the above For inspiration of air to occur, the volume of the lungs ____________, and the pressure in the lungs (alveolar pressure) _____________. a. decreases, increases b. decreases, decreases c. increases, decreases d. increases, increases - ✔✔✔ c. increases, decreases Increased transport of Na+ from the tubular fluid to the peritubular capillaries would be brought about by _________. a. renin