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CSMLS Practice Exam With Latest
Updated Answers Graded A+ 2025
Which is the detector of choice for nephelometers? Select one: a. diode array b. photomultiplier tube c. gas photodiode d. LED - correct answer.b Which statement regarding turbidimetry is NOT correct? Select one: a. light scattered by solutes in the solution at 180° from the incident light is measured by a photon detector b. the measurement of light is made at right angles to the incident light c. scattered light is directly proportional to the number of particles in solution d. measures the amount of incident light blocked by particles - correct answer.b What is the effect on the colligative properties when you increase the number of particles in the solution? Select one: a. Increases the boiling point, increases the freezing point b. Increases the boiling point, increases the vapor pressure c. Decreases the boiling point, increases the freezing point, d. Decreases the freezing point, decreases the vapor pressure - correct answer.d
- increase boiling point
- decrease freezing point
- decrease vapor pressure
- increase osmotic pressure What is the definition of retention factor (Rf) in thin layer chromatography? Select one: a. Ratio of distance moved by the unknown solute to distance moved by the solvent in the mobile phase b. Rate of movement of the mobile phase through adsorbant compared with standards and controls c. Measurement in centimeters of the distance the solute moved in the mobile phase from the point of application
d. Distance moved by the mobile phase front from the point of application compared with a control - correct answer.a What is quenching? Select one: a. a type of resonant fluorescence b. an analytical procedure for determining fluorescent compounds. c. the loss of fluorescent intensity which produces falsely decreased patient results. d. the loss of fluorescent intensity which produces falsely increased patient results. - correct answer.c What will cause false values when using nephelometric analysis? Select one: a. absorption by a closely related atomic species b. excess analyte in the antigen/antibody reaction c. hemolyzed sample d. too much fluorophore in the analyte/fluorescing compound mixture - correct answer.b What measurement describes a current flow between two non-polarized electrodes with a known electrical potential? Select one: a. amperometry b. conductometry c. coulometry d. potentiometry - correct answer.b What does aldosterone secretion lead to? Select one: a. hypotension b. increased ECF (extracellular fluid) volume c. increased serum potassium d. none of the above - correct answer.b Which of these factors DO NOT influence the rate of an enzyme reaction? Select one: a. enzyme concentration b. substrate concentration c. cofactors d. nomenclature - correct answer.d Which statement regarding serum urea is correct? Select one: a. is elevated in prerenal and renal failure b. it is not reabsorbed by the renal tubules c. high levels can result from necrotic liver disease d. levels are independent of diet - correct answer.a
How far from the hazard should an emergency eyewash be located? Select one: a. Within 10 feet b. Within 10 seconds walking distance c. Within 30 feet d. Within 30 seconds walking distance - correct answer.b A Medical Laboratory Technologist from the RAH Laboratory is part of a team traveling to the North Thunder Bay Laboratory to assess if that laboratory is adhering to the set standards for laboratory services. This MLT is taking part in which one of the following processes? Select one: a. Risk Management b. Quality Improvement c. Empowerment d. Accreditation - correct answer.d Random errors are frequently caused by: Select one: a. attention to the timing of a reaction b. changing over to a new lot of reagent c. inaccurate specimen identification d. storing specimens at the correct temperature - correct answer.c Westgard rules: Select one: a. Require a large amount of time to maintain b. Are a good visual representation of precision c. Distinguish between random and systematic error d. Predict errors - correct answer.c The Medical Laboratory Technologists working in Microbiology have been given the assignment of designing a quick reference guide for their laboratory to distribute to other departments in the hospital. Which one of the following terms, best describes this assignment? Select one: a. Management b. Empowerment c. Quality Control d. Accreditation - correct answer.b (authority or power given to someone to do something) What is caused by a tourniquet being left on too long? Select one: a. hemoconcentration
b. hemodilution c. hemolysis d. hemophilia - correct answer.a What is exudate? Select one: a. Abnormal fluid accumulation caused by an infection b. Abnormal fluid accumulation with a non-infectious origin c. Normal fluid found in a body cavity - correct answer.a Failing to do something which a reasonable person in the profession would have done is known as: Select one: a. liability b. tort c. 'res superior' d. Negligence - correct answer.d What is the term used to describe a complaint process by an employee who feels they have been treated unfairly according to the contract agreement? Select one: a. Arbitration b. Grievance c. Collective bargaining d. Harassment - correct answer.b As the size of an organization increases, the potential for conflict decreases. Select one: a. True b. False - correct answer.b Which result may alert a technologist to the presence of cold agglutinins? Select one: a. An increased hematocrit b. A decreased MCH, MCV and MCHC c. A decreased hemoglobin d. A decreased RBC count - correct answer.d What reagent would be used as a diluent for a manual platelet count? Select one: a. Acetic Acid b. Ammonium oxalate c. New Methylene Blue d. Phloxine in proprylene glycol - correct answer.b
a. thrombin inhibitor b. immunosuppressant c. COX-1/ COX-2 inhibitor d. not a 13-HODE inhibitor - correct answer.c What is the reference range for a factor VIII assay? Select one: a. 100% of normal b. 50 to 150% of normal c. Less than 65 seconds d. Not affected by acute phase reactants - correct answer.b What is the acceptable platelet count in platelet-poor plasma used for coagulation testing? Select one: a. <1 x 109/L b. <5 x 109/L c. <10 x 109/L d. <15 x 109/L - correct answer.c What is the most efficient plasmin inhibitor? Select one: a. α2-antiplasmin b. Plasminogen activator inhibitor (PAI-1) c. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) d. Streptokinase - correct answer.a What plasma protein is essential to platelet adhesion? Select one: a. factor VIII b. fibrinogen c. prostacyclin d. vWF - correct answer.d Household bleach used for a spilled laboratory blood specimen is diluted Select one: a. 1/ b. 1/ c. 1/ d. not at all - correct answer.a The following health care worker must be certified with transportation of dangerous goods (TDG) Select one: a. Porter transporting blood specimens within the hospital b. Lab personnel preparing blood specimens for transportation out of the hospital
c. custodian disposing of autoclaved waste d. technologist retrieving specimens for the day's work - correct answer.b Pinks (LF) on MAC are: Select one: a. enteric pathogens b. never enteric pathogens c. ONPG positive d. pigmented on BAP - correct answer.c In the preparation of Mueller-Hinton Agar plates, all of the following are controlled except: Select one: a. Ca2+ and Mg2+ concentration b. depth of the agar c. pH of the agar d. temperature of incubation - correct answer.d The reagent used in the oxidase test is Select one: a. tetra methyl para phenylene diamine dihydrochloride b. para dimethyl amino benzaldehyde hydrochloride c. dimethyl hydrocupreine hydrochloride d. 2,4-diamino 6,7-di-isopropylpteridine phosphate - correct answer.a How should all specimens be transported? Select one: a. leak-proof secondary container b. syringe with needle attached c. tube of broth d. latex glove - correct answer.a The name of the organism associated with a low Nugent score is: Select one: a. Gardnerella vaginalis b. Hemophilus aegyptius c. Lactobacillus spp. d. Pasteurella multocida - correct answer.c Which of the following is NOT required for workers in a level 3 lab? Select one: a. documented training for each procedure performed b. personal items in separate locker in the level 3 lab c. personal protective material including breathing apparatus d. annual refresher for the facility function - correct answer.b
b. prevents buffering salts from precipitating during processing c. reduces antigen masking by crosslinkages d. inadequate dehydration with alcohols will occur - correct answer.a Why is paraffin wax stored on the processor at just above its melting temperature? Select one: a. ensures stable wax temperature during fluid exchange b. ensures adequate removal of xylene c. ensures sectioning quality d. improves quality of embedded block - correct answer.a Why is it considered an error to overfill a cassette base during embedding? Select one: a. the block may not seat correctly into the chuck (specimen holder) during microtomy b. the specimen will require more coarse trimming than usual c. this tissue will seperate from the wax its embedded in d. the specimen will not have adequate support during microtomy - correct answer.a What desirable artifact is produced during fixation? Select one: a. karyolysis b. masking of antigenic sites c. protein denaturation d. acid formaldehyde hematin - correct answer.c What is the optimum temperature range of the tissue floatation bath if the melting point of the paraffin is 58°C? Select one: a. 70 - 72ºC b. 60º-62ºC c. 54 - 58ºC d. 44 - 48ºC - correct answer.d The antigenicity of the Fya and Fyb antigens is considered: Select one: a. Weak b. Moderate c. Strong d. Second strongest of all Blood Group Systems - correct answer.a Does anti-Jka bind complement? Select one: a. Never b. Yes: some (~ 20%) c. Yes: some (~ 50 %) d. Always - correct answer.d
What is likely to occur if the same fixation time is used for dense tissue and soft tissue? Select one: a. inadequate dehydration in soft tissue b. excessive swelling in soft tissue c. excessive shrinkage in dense tissue d. inadequate penetration in dense tissue - correct answer.d For which disorder/disease would the administration of immune globulin be appropriate? Select one: a. hypovolemic shock b. ITP c. factor VIII deficiency d. to maintain colloid osmotic pressure - correct answer.b What is the acceptable age of patient blood specimens used for compatibility testing, when the transfusion history is unknown? Select one: a. 1 day b. 3 days c. 5 days d. 7 days - correct answer.b What structure will be present within the endocrine portions of the pancreas? Select one: a. cuboidal ducts b. septae of fibrocolleganous tissue c. cord and clump parenchymal cells d. clusters of pyramidal shaped cells - correct answer.c What feature can be used to distinguish between trachea and bronchus? Select one: a. submucosal glands b. smooth muscle c. the presence of irregular cartilage plates d. presence of respiratory epithelium - correct answer.c What substance can be used to unmask epitopes in Immunohistochemistry methods? Select one: a. glycine b. peroxidase c. pronase d. tryosine - correct answer.c What makes the best positive control for immunohistochemistry? Select one:
d. ensuring that all employees are involved in quality performances - correct answer.b What type of restriction enzyme lacks methylation activity? Select one: a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV - correct answer.b What likely caused the electrophoresis product of a southern blot to not have bands present? Select one: a. contamination of PCR b. southern blot used an agarose membrane c. initial electrophoresis used an agarose gel d. nitrocellulose membrane was used for the Southern blot - correct answer.b What enzyme is responsible for joining Okazaki fragments? Select one: a. Helicase b. Gyrase c. Ligase d. DNA polymerase - correct answer.c Which of the following statements about interference filters is incorrect? a. Interference filters are made of two glass pieces. b. The thickness of the spacer determines the wavelength of energy transmitted. c. The thickness of the spacer is designed to be precisely one-third of the desired wavelength. d. Energies of wavelengths that are multiples of the thickness of the spaces stay in phase as they reflect back and forth between the silvered surfaces and finally pass through. - correct answer.c The thickness of the spacer is designed to be precisely one-half of the desired wavelength Which of the following mechanisms is NOT associated with Type IV hypersensitivity? a. Lymphokines are produced by T-lymphs. b. Lymphokines attract macrophages that become activated. c. As more macrophages pool at the site, ulceration and necrosis occur. d. Ulceration and necrosis occur approximately 1 - 2 hours after exposure to the antigen. - correct answer.d Ulceration and necrosis occur approximately 24 - 48 hours after exposure to the antigen. An example of this would be tuberculin-type hypersensitivity or granulomatous hypersensitivity.
When collecting a specimen of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) it is done by lumbar puncture between which lumbar vertebrae? a. 3 - 4 or 4 - 5 b. 4 - 5 or 5 - 6 c. 5 - 6 or 6 - 7 d. 2 - 3 or 4 3 - 4 - correct answer.a Which of the following stages of erythrocyte maturation is characterized by a 1:1 N/C ratio, size of up to 16 μm, and begins to produce hemoglobin? a. pronormoblast b. basophilic normoblast c. polychromatophilic normoblast d. orthochromic normoblast - correct answer.c Which of the following statements in regard to Salmonella is true? a. Most Salmonella serotypes are non-pathogenic to humans and animals. b. Serotype classification is based on the Kauffman-White system. c. Salmonella will not cause gastroenteritis. d. Suspect Salmonella infections from stool cultures show lactose positive colonies. - correct answer.b Most Salmonella serotypes are pathogenic to humans and animals. Salmonella will cause gastroenteritis (moderate to severe). Suspect Salmonella infections from stool cultures show lactose negative colonies. How long are urine samples centrifuged in macroscopic urinalysis? a. A couple seconds. b. A few minutes. c. A few hours. d. They are not centrifuged. - correct answer.d How long are urine samples centrifuged in microscopic urinalysis? a. A couple seconds. b. A few minutes. c. A few hours. d. They are not centrifuged. - correct answer.b Which of the following markers is often elevated with a solid tumor mass? a. Enolase. b. ALP. c. ACTH. d. LDH. - correct answer.d LDH may be elevated with different medical conditions. It is shown to be high with solid tumors. This makes it useful in monitoring the size of tumors during treatment. Which of the following types of white blood cells is likely to increase if the patient is undergoing an allergic reaction?
Which of the following laboratory findings for joint disorders would be characterized by cloudy, red fluid, low viscosity, WBCs equal to blood, neutrophils equal to blood and a normal glucose level? a. inflammatory (crystal-induced origin) b. inflammatory (immunologic origin) c. hemorrhagic d. septic - correct answer.c Findings characterized by cloudy, red fluid, low viscosity, WBCs equal to blood, neutrophils equal to blood and a normal glucose level put the laboratory findings in the hemorrhagic group classification. Along with the findings in the other choices there is also a non-inflammatory group classification. Which of the following statements about fresh-frozen plasma is incorrect? a. The frozen plasma is thawed at 30 - 45 degrees C for 20 minutes before transfusion. b. Fresh-frozen plasma is indicated for patients on anticoagulants who are bleeding or require surgery. c. The purpose of using fresh-frozen plasma is to replace coagulation factors in the patient. d. Water baths with agitators are preferred for thawing because the unit thaws faster. - correct answer.a Frozen plasma is thawed at 30 - 37 degrees C for 30 to 45 minutes before transfusion. The NFPA diamond uses which of the following colors to indicate fire hazards? a. Blue. b. Red. c. Yellow. d. White. - correct answer.b The NFPA diamond uses the following: Blue to indicate health hazards Red to indicate fire hazards Yellow to indicate reactivity White to indicate specific hazards Hyperphosphatemia may be due to which of the following? a. Kidney failure. b. Hypercalcemia. c. Very poor nutrition. d. Osteomalacia. - correct answer.a Hypercalcemia, very poor nutrition, and osteomalacia can be typical results of hypophosphatemia. Diabetic ketoacidosis and liver disease can be a result of hyperphosphatemia. Which of the following is the adult reference range for the calcium test? a. 60 - 80 g/L b. 35 - 50 g/L
c. 2.2 - 2.6 mmol/L d. 0.80 - 1.45 mmol/L - correct answer.c Which of the following results would NOT be found in a person with increased LDL? a. HDL normal b. Triglyceride normal c. Apo 100 increased d. Serum appearance - creamy layer sometimes present over a cloudy layer - correct answer.d The serum appearance in a person with increased LDL would not look like a creamy layer sometimes present over a cloudy layer. This would be typical of a person with increased IDL (type III). The serum appearance in a person with increased LDL would be clear or cloudy. Which of the following is the body's third line of defense against infection? a. Barriers such as skin. b. Histamine reaction. c. Macrophages. d. Lymphocytes. - correct answer.d The first line of defense is barriers, which aim to keep infectious agents out of the body. These include the skin, saliva, urine, mucus, and stomach acid. The second line of defense is the inflammatory response, including histamine response, the release of interferon, and macrophages. The third line of defense is the release of lymphocytes, which can kill infectious agents with antibodies. Which of the following acronyms is NOT properly paired with its correct full name? a. AACC - American Association for Clinical Chemistry b. CLIA - Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments c. NACB - National Academy of Clinical Biochemistry d. CAP - Clinical Associative Pathology - correct answer.d CAP stands for College of American Pathologists. The body component in which an analyte is to be measured is which of the following? a. medium b. template c. matrix d. pattern - correct answer.c The matrix is the body component in which an analyte is to be measured. For example, the matrix can be fluid, urine, blood, etc. Which of these is noted in the Biohazard Level 4 category? a. Chicken pox. b. Hepatitis A. c. West Nile virus. d. Ebola. - correct answer.d
An autocratic directive technique involves giving detailed instructions of exactly how and what is to be done. The manager's way is the best and employees need not think of another way to accomplish the task; however, this technique inhibits employees thinking for themselves. Mature platelets are comprised of four major areas. Which of the following is NOT one of these areas? a. peripheral zone b. sol-gel zone c. membrane area d. organelle zone - correct answer.c The submembrane area is one of the four major areas that comprise mature platelets. It links the platelet membrane together with the internal cell structure. The SMA-20 is a type of: a. Chemistry screen. b. Urine test. c. Breathing test. d. Physical test. - correct answer.a Which of the following is NOT an anaerobic cocci (both gram positive or gram negative)? a. peptpcoccus niger b. Peptostreptococcus magnus c. Propionibacterium acnes d. Veillonella parvula - correct answer.c Which of the following is the adult reference range for the lactate dehydrogenase test? a. 0.2 - 0.9 mg / dL. b. 30 - 80 U/L. c. 100 - 225 U/L. d. 10 - 40 U/L. - correct answer.c In which of the following types of transplants is ABO compatibility important? a. bone b. heart valve c. skin d. kidney - correct answer.d ABO compatibility is important in kidney, liver and heart transplants. It is not important in bone, heart valves, skin and cornea transplants. Which of the following methods is preferred for the ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)? a. None. b. Wintrobe. c. Westergren.
d. Wintrobe and Westergren. - correct answer.b Where is ALP typically located? a. Renal tissue. b. Urine. c. Cord. d. Cell membrane. - correct answer.d Alkaline phosphate or ALP is found in a number of different tissues. It is generally found in the cell membranes. It operates by helping the transfer of metabolites across the cell membrane. Which type of agar is used to enhance pigment development, conidia production and mold to yeast phase enhancement? a. Sabouraud brain heart infusion agars b. Brain heart infusion agars with blood c. Sabouraud dextrose agars d. Differential agars - correct answer.d Differential agars are used to enhance pigment development, conidia production and mold to yeast phase enhancement. They include: potato dextrose agar, birdseed agar, cottonseed agar, cornmeal Tween 80, and agars containing rice, casein and other nutrients. Which of the following tumor markers is useful in identifying ovarian cancer in post menopausal women? a. CA 19- 9 b. CA 125 c. carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) d. α-Fetoprotein (AFP) - correct answer.b What Mechanisms of Resistance category is associated with lowered uptake and the antibiotic is pumped from a cell? a. Production of enzymes. b. Altered target. c. Altered permeability. d. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis. - correct answer.c Antimicrobial susceptibility testing uses the results to help select the best antimicrobial agents to be used for treatment against infectious organisms. Mechanisms of Resistance is associated with how organisms protect themselves. It has 5 parts They are: intrinsic versus extrinsic resistance, production of enzymes, altered target, altered permeability, and biofilms. Under altered permeability, there is: lowered uptake and the antibiotic is pumped from a cell. Which of the following drugs is matched with its correct therapeutic range? a. lidocaine: 1.5 - 4 μg/mL b. quinidine: 5 - 7 μg/mL c. disopyramide: 4.5 - 10 μg/mL
