Download CSMLS MLA Practice Test 1 With Real Correct Questions And Answers Graded A+ latest 2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
CSMLS MLA Practice Test 1 With Real
Correct Questions And Answers Graded A+
Latest 2025
Sterilization by dry heat is performed at how many degrees Celsius? A.) 100 B.) 170 C.) 240 D.) 310 E.) 380 - correct answer.B.) 170 Dry heat sterilization is generally done at 160-170 degrees Celsius What is the most widely used sterilization method in clinical laboratories? A.) Autoclaving B.) Boiling C.) Chemical Sterilization D.) Dry Heat Oven E.) Ionizing Radiation - correct answer.A.) Autoclaving When using the autoclave, you should put sterilization strips: A.) Close to the air exhaust valve B.) In the centre of each article C.) On the bottom shelf of the autoclave D.) On the outside of each pack E.) Outside the autoclave - correct answer.B.) In the centre of each article Which of the following should be observed during incineration? A.) Disinfect all articles before burning them B.) Make sure at least three people are present C.) Make sure complete burning takes place D.) Make sure the temperature reaches at least 120 degrees Celsius E.) Sanitize all articles before burning them - correct answer.C.) Make sure complete burning takes place Which statement about radiation hazards is true? A.) Large amounts of radiation are used in the RIA department B.) Radiation accidents may be difficult to recognize C.) Radiation does not affect a fetus D.) Radiation guidelines are set by the Food and Drug Act
E.) Radiation is not transferred into the body - correct answer.B.) Radiation accidents may be difficult to recognize Acid spills should be neutralized with: A.) Acetic acid B.) Boric acid C.) Potassium chlorate D.) Sodium bicarbonate E.) Sodium hydroxide - correct answer.D.) Sodium bicarbonate Acid spills should be neutralized with a weak base (e.g., sodium bicarbonate) and then cleaned up with a paper towel. TLV is the concentration of a substance that: A.) A worker can be exposed to for one hour without adverse effect B.) A worker can be exposed to over a working lifetime without adverse effect C.) Kills all test animals D.) Kills half of test animals E.) Makes half of human test subjects sick - correct answer.B.) A worker can be exposed to over a working lifetime without adverse effect TLV (Threshold Limit Value) is the level that workers can be exposed to daily over a working lifetime without adverse effects. Which of these is a good practice when working with strong acids? A.) Wear eye protection B.) Wear latex gloves C.) Wear open-toed shoes D.) When mixing acid and water, always add the water to the acid. NOT the other way around. - correct answer.A.) Wear eye protection. *Latex gloves are NOT acid-resistant. **You should NEVER add water to acid because this could cause the acid to boil violently. Red on an NFPA chemical label indicates a: A.) Acid hazard B.) Carcinogen C.) Fire Hazard D.) Fume Hazard E.) Poison Hazard - correct answer.C.) Fire Hazard Red = Fire Hazard Blue = Health Hazard Yellow = Reactivity/Instability Hazard White = Specific/Special Hazard What is the term for chemical that can burn or destroy tissue? A.) Cancerous B.) Caustic
In which of these situations should safety goggles be worn? A.) During blood collections B.) During reagent and specimen preparation C.) When talking to members of the public D.) While inspecting reagent supplies E.) While transporting sealed waste containers - correct answer.B.) During reagent and specimen preparation Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops? A.) 10% B.) 20% C.) 30% D.) 40% E.) 50% - correct answer.A.) 10% *After disinfection with 10% bleach, surfaces must then be wiped down with 70% isopropyl or ethyl alcohol to inactivate the bleach and prevent corrosion of the surface. Always keep picric acid: A.) Dry B.) Frozen C.) Next to the window D.) Refrigerated E.) Wet - correct answer.E.) Wet *Dry picric acid can form unstable crystals that can explode. Class 7 materials in the Transportation of Dangerous Goods (TDG) Act are: A.) Corrosive B.) Explosive C.) Flammable or Combustible D.) Poisonous or Infectious E.) Radioactive - correct answer.E.) Radioactive Class 1: Explosives Class 2: Gases Class 3: Flammable Liquids Class 4: Flammable Solids Class 5: Oxidizers Class 6: Toxic/Poisonous and Infectious Substances Class 7: Radioactive Materials Class 8: Corrosives Class 9: Miscellaneous (e.g., dry ice, lithium batteries) Infectious substances are part of which class in the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act? A.) Class 2 B.) Class 3
C.) Class 5 D.) Class 6 E.) Class 8 - correct answer.D.) Class 6 Class 1: Explosives Class 2: Gases Class 3: Flammable Liquids Class 4: Flammable Solids Class 5: Oxidizers Class 6: Toxic/Poisonous and Infectious Substances Class 7: Radioactive Materials Class 8: Corrosives Class 9: Miscellaneous (e.g., dry ice, lithium batteries) The liquid part of blood containing fibrinogen is called: A.) Heparin B.) Plasma C.) Serum D.) The buffy coat E.) Whole blood - correct answer.B.) Plasma Which blood vessel is located on the thumb side of the arm? A.) Anterior tibial vein B.) Cephalic vein C.) External iliac vein D.) Femoral vein E.) Posterior tibial vein - correct answer.B.) Cephalic vein When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein? A.) The antecubital fossa B.) The back of the hand C.) The back of the knee D.) The feet E.) The neck - correct answer.A.) The antecubital fossa What vein is not used to obtain a venous blood sample? A.) Basilica vein B.) Cephalic vein C.) Femoral vein D.) Median cubital vein E.) The veins on the back of the hand - correct answer.C.) Femoral vein *This vein is deep in the thigh and is NOT used for phlebotomy. What are cross-match tubes used for? A.) Blood alcohol testing B.) Blood compatibility testing
D.) Factor assays E.) Therapeutic drug monitoring - correct answer.A.) ABO and Rh, cross-matching Which tablet is used for glucose testing in urine? A.) Acetest B.) Clinitest C.) Ictotest D.) SSA E.) TCA - correct answer.B.) Clinitest *It detects reducing substances (like glucose) in the urine. The largest vein in the body is the: A.) Aorta B.) Hepatic portal vein C.) Iliac vein D.) Pulmonary vein E.) Vena cava - correct answer.E.) Vena cava What does GTT stand for? A.) Genetic Test B.) Glucose Tolerance Test C.) Gold Tube Test D.) Guanine-Thymine Test E.) Guaranteed Temperature Test - correct answer.B.) Glucose Tolerance Test How should a capillary tube be sealed when performing a microhematocrit? A.) Both ends are sealed at a 45-degree angle to the clay B.) The capillary tube is not sealed C.) The clean end is sealed at a 45-degree angle to the clay D.) The clean end is sealed at a 90-degree angle to the clay E.) The end used to collect the blood is sealed - correct answer.D.) The clean end is sealed at a 90-degree angle to the clay Activated charcoal present in transport media will: A.) Absorb toxic substances B.) Destroy cells and tissue C.) Kill non-pathogens D.) Maintain anaerobic conditions E.) Prevent overgrowth of extraneous organisms - correct answer.A.) Absorb toxic substances Needles used for phlebotomy must be: A.) Cooled B.) Disinfected C.) Heated D.) Sterile
E.) Washed - correct answer.D.) Sterile Which of these specimens is sterile in healthy people? A.) Blood B.) Feces C.) Gastrointestinal Tract specimens D.) Sputum E.) Urine - correct answer.A.) Blood The creatinine clearance test: A.) Is a liver function test B.) Requires both serum and a 24-hour urine sample C.) Requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing D.) Requires timed blood samples to be drawn E.) Requires urine samples only - correct answer.B.) Requires both serum and a 24- hour urine sample Why should you wipe the first drop of blood away after performing a capillary puncture? A.) To increase blood flow to the area B.) To remove any excess tissue fluid C.) To remove any pathogens D.) To remove any spores E.) To remove the last traces of alcohol - correct answer.E.) To remove the last traces of alcohol Acid phosphatase is higher in people with: A.) Gout B.) Heart disease C.) Kidney disease D.) Liver disease E.) Prostatic cancer - correct answer.E.) Prostatic Cancer *Acid phosphates is an enzyme made in the liver, spleen, bone marrow and prostate gland. Heterophile antibodies can be detected by: A.) ABO typing B.) A karyotype test C.) A mononucleosis test D.) an Rh and antibody screen E.) An indirect Coombs test - correct answer.C.) A mononucleosis test Which term means the way a living organism or bodily part function? A.) Anatomy B.) Morphology C.) Pathology D.) Physiology
What additive do light blue top tubes contain? A.) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid B.) Heparin C.) Potassium Oxalate D.) Sodium Citrate E.) Sodium Fluoride - correct answer.D.) Sodium Citrate What are purple top tubes used for? A.) Blood culture specimen collections in microbiology B.) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rates C.) Glucose determinations D.) Hematology and chemistry tests E.) Molecular diagnostic tests - correct answer.D.) Hematology and chemistry tests The digestive tube from the mouth to the anus is called the: A.) Alimentary tract B.) Anal canal C.) Esophagus D.) Large intestine E.) Small intestine - correct answer.A.) Alimentary tract The purpose of a tourniquet during venipuncture is to: A.) Decrease the oxygen level B.) Make the veins more prominent C.) Monitor blood pressure D.) Prevent hematoma E.) Prevent nerve damage - correct answer.B.) Make the veins more prominent After use, venipuncture needles should be: A.) Discarded into a sharps container B.) Discarded into an autoclave bag C.) Discarded into recycling D.) Discarded into the garbage E.) Reuse - correct answer.A.) Discarded into a sharps container GTT stands for? A.) Glucagon Timed Test B.) Glucose Tolerance Test C.) Glycerol Treatment Tube D.) Glycogen Test Tube E.) Glycogen Treatment Test - correct answer.B.) Glucose Tolerance Test POCT stands for: A.) Point of care testing B.) Point of contact testing
C.) Post-operation cancer test D.) Post-operation creatine test E.) Pre-operation cancer test - correct answer.A.) Point of care testing BT and CT stand for: A.) Bile test and culture test B.) Bleeding time and clotting time C.) Blood test and clotting test D.) Blood tube and clot tube E.) Blue tube and cyan tube - correct answer.B.) Bleeding time and clotting time *To detect occult hemostatic disorders What does CBC stand for? A.) Center for blood care B.) Center for blood control C.) Complete blood count D.) Complete blood culture E.) Controlled blood count - correct answer.C.) Complete blood count *A test that counts the number of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets Sodium fluoride keeps ______ molecules intact for three days. A.) Cellulite B.) Cellulose C.) Glucose D.) Glycerine E.) Protein - correct answer.C.) Glucose What is "the order of draw"? A.) An order given by a superior to draw blood from a patient B.) The correct sequence of steps for taking blood by venipuncture C.) The order blood tubes are filled D.) The order blood vials are stored E.) The order you select patients to draw blood from - correct answer.C.) The order blood tubes are filled Reticulocyte counts use ______ top tubes. A.) Green B.) Gray C.) Lavender D.) Light blue E.) Red - correct answer.C. Lavender Hepatitis A: A.) Can be cured with antibiotics B.) Is the most common type of hepatitis C.) Primarily infects the liver
The three major groups of plasma proteins are: A.) Albumin, fibrinogen, globulin B.) Albumin, globulin, hemoglobin C.) Fibrin, globulin, albumin D.) Insulin, glucagon, hemoglobin - correct answer.A.) Albumin, fibrinogen, globulin The most common types of while blood cells are: A.) Monocytes and basophils B.) Monocytes and eosinophils C.) Monocytes and lymphocytes D.) Neutrophils and basophils E.) Neutrophils and lymphocytes - correct answer.E.) Neutrophils and lymphocytes Which is the standard needle for routine venipuncture? A.) 20 gauge B.) 21 gauge C.) 22 gauge D.) 23 gauge E.) 24 gauge - correct answer.B.) 21 gauge Which of these vacutainer additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis? A.) EDTA B.) Silica C.) Sodium Fluoride D.) Thixotropic gel - correct answer.D.) Thixotropic gel The purpose of royal blue top tubes is to: A.) Encourage blood to clot B.) Minimize contamination of trace elements C.) Prevent blood from clotting D.) Prevent glucose from breaking down E.) Protect the specimen from light - correct answer.B.) Minimize contamination of trace elements The best way to judge the patency of a vein is to: A.) Ask the patient how their vein feels B.) Feel it to determine the strength of the pulse C.) Palpate above and below where you first feel it D.) Press and release it several times to determine resilience E.) Roll your finger from side to side while pressing against it - correct answer.D.) Press and release it several times to determine resilience Underfilling which tube will most likely result in a hemolyzed specimen? A.) EDTA tube B.) Gray top
C.) Green top D.) Light-blue top E.) SST - correct answer.B.) Gray top After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that: A.) The patient is diabetic B.) The patient is taking an anticoagulant C.) The site may bleed excessively D.) The tourniquet is in the wrong place E.) The tourniquet is too tight - correct answer.C.) The site may bleed excessively *Spots are called petechiae and they do NOT indicate that the phlebotomist has performed the procedure incorrectly but they indicate that the venipuncture may bleed excessively. When the arm of a patient is swollen with excess fluid, the condition is called: A.) Edema B.) Hemoconcentration C.) Icterus D.) Syncope - correct answer.A.) Edema *Medical term for swelling. Icterus = term for jaundice Syncope = medical word for fainting Which of these is needed for a malaria test? A.) Agard B.) Capillary tube C.) Clay sealant D.) Glass slide E.) Microhematocrit tube - correct answer.D.) Glass slide *Malaria test requires a drop of blood on a glass slide. The glass is then stained and examined under a microscope. The main reason a capillary puncture site is warmed beforehand is to: A.) Delay clotting B.) Increase blood flow C.) Minimize contamination D.) Prevent bruising E.) Reduce hemoconcentration - correct answer.B.) Increase blood flow When preparing blood smears, at what degree should the spreader slide be? A.) 15 degrees B.) 30 degrees C.) 45 degrees D.) 60 degrees E.) 90 degrees - correct answer.B.) 30 degrees
A.) Has breakfast B.) Is given anti-coagulants C.) Is given anti-microbial agents D.) Is given any "dye" injections E.) Is given diuretics - correct answer.C.) Is given anti-microbial agents Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for: A.) Bacteria B.) Bilirubin C.) Glucose D.) Occult blood E.) Protein - correct answer.A.) Bacteria Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen? A.) Catecholamines B.) Creatinine clearance C.) Ketones D.) Ketosteroids E.) Quantitative drug analysis - correct answer.C.) Ketones What is a buffy coat? A.) A layer of cells that appears when whole anticoagulated blood is centrifuged B.) A layer of cells that appears when whole coagulated blood is centrifuged C.) The cell membrane of a while blood cell D.) The lay of buffer that appears when an SST tube is centrifuged E.) The liquid part of blood - correct answer.A.) A layer of cells that appears when whole anticoagulated blood is centrifuged A reticulocyte is: A.) A mature red blood cell B.) An immature erythrocyte C.) Demonstrated using a Wright-Giemsa stain D.) Found only in the bone marrow E.) Part of the reticuloendothelial system - correct answer.B.) An immature erythrocyte Which of these antibodies is most likely to be found on a B cell? A.) IgA B.) IgD C.) IgE D.) IgG E.) IgM - correct answer.B.) IgD Which of these actions would help to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture? A.) Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times B.) Asking the patient to release her fist upon blood flow C.) Drawing blood from sclerose or occluded veins
D.) Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute E.) Massaging the site before inserting the needle - correct answer.B.) Asking the patient to release her fist upon blood flow Which nerve should you be careful about when giving an injection into the buttocks? A.) Brachial B.) Femoral C.) Sacral D.) Sciatic - correct answer.D.) Sciatic Which of these tests might require special chain-of-custody documentation when the specimen is collected? A.) Blood culture B.) Cross-match C.) Drug screen D.) TDM - correct answer.C.) Drug screen Blood for a red blood cell count must be prepared from: A.) EDTA blood B.) Citrated blood C.) Clotted blood D.) Heparinized blood E.) Oxalated blood - correct answer.A.) EDTA blood The purpose of heat fixing a bacterial smear is to: A.) Destroy the bacterial cell wall B.) Make the cells absorb the stain more easily C.) Make the cells visible under the microscope D.) Prevent cells from being washed off during staining E.) Provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow - correct answer.D.) Prevent cells from being washed off during staining How should commercially prepared culture plates be stored? A.) At room temperature in a dark area of the lab B.) At room temperature next to the window C.) In a dry oven D.) In a fridge at 2-4 degrees Celsius E.) In the freezer until several hours before use - correct answer.D.) In a fridge at 2- 4 degrees Celsius When giving specimens for Culture and Sensitivity, the patient should: A.) Be off antibiotics for several days before collection B.) Come to the lab first thing in the morning C.) Eat a diet high in sugar before the test D.) Fast for 12 to 14 hours
*Additive is K2 EDTA ** Used for copper, zinc, and trace element determinations The main use of a buffer is to: A.) Accentuate changes in pH B.) Keep a solution neutral C.) Make a solution more acidic D.) Make a solution more basic E.) Minimize changes in pH - correct answer.E.) Minimize changes in pH *Buffer: a solution that resists changes in pH when acid or alkali is added to it. Its purpose is to keep a solution within the desired pH range. Why are Petri plates placed upside down in the incubator? A.) To prevent contamination from other Petri plates B.) To prevent drying of the medium C.) To prevent gas bubbles from escaping D.) To prevent moisture from accumulating on the agar surface E.) To prevent pathogens from overgrowing - correct answer.D.) To prevent moisture from accumulating on the agar surface Wax baths used in histology are generally set at what temperature? A.) 37 degrees Celsius B.) 56 degrees Celsius C.) 70 degrees Celsius D.) 85 degrees Celsius E.) 100 degrees Celsius - correct answer.B.) 56 degrees Celsius If you see small clots when making a blood smear, you should: A.) Add more anticoagulant to the blood tube B.) Do nothing because small clots will not affect a blood smear C.) Mix the blood specimen D.) Request new specimen E.) Stir the blood in a sterile bottle containing small glass beads - correct answer.D.) Request new specimen Cytological smears are usually fixed with: A.) 10% alcohol B.) 2% formalin C.) 20% formalin D.) 95% alcohol or cytospray E.) Toluene - correct answer.D.) 95% alcohol or cytospray A pipette marked T.C. should be: A.) Allowed to drain freely B.) Blown out C.) Rinsed out after delivery
D.) Used only between the graduated marks E.) Used only to pipette acids or bases - correct answer.C.) Rinsed out after delivery Microtome blades should generally be angled at around: A.) 5 degrees B.) 15 degrees C.) 25 degrees D.) 35 degrees E.) 45 degrees - correct answer.A.) 5 degrees Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining? A.) To make the cells visible under the microscope B.) To prevent the cells from being washed off the slide during staining C.) To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow D.) To remove alcohol from the slide - correct answer.B.) To prevent the cells from being washed off the slide during staining In setting up a throat swab: A.) A Loeffler's, SSA and Amies charcoal media are required B.) A four-quadrant pattern is employed C.) You may isolate strep, leprosy, viruses and protozoa D.) You swab plates and slides - correct answer.B.) A four-quadrant patter is employed Mueller-Hinton agar (MHA) is used: A.) To check the efficiency of HEPA filters B.) To identify fungi C.) To isolate Neisseria species D.) With the Steer's replicator - correct answer.C.) To isolate Neisseria species Seminal fluid for fertility studies should: A.) Arrive in a heated container B.) Be collected after 1 month of abstinence C.) Be frozen before testing D.) Be protected from extreme temperatures E.) Be refrigerated before testing - correct answer.D.) Be protected from extreme temperatures Which of these reagents is stored underwater? A.) Ammonium B.) Ethanol C.) Ether D.) Picric Acid E.) Xylene - correct answer.D.) Picric Acid What is the most common temperature and pressure for autoclaving? A.) 212 degrees Fahrenheit at 15 pounds of pressure per square inch
