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CRCR MULTIPLE CHOICE FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+, Exams of Nursing

CRCR MULTIPLE CHOICE FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/06/2025

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CRCR MULTIPLE CHOICE FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS &
DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
The disadvantages of outsourcing include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) The impact of customer service or patient relations
b) The impact of loss of direct control of accounts receivable services
c) Increased costs due to vendor ineffectiveness
d) Reduced internal staffing costs and a reliance on outsourced staff - CORRECT ANSWER
>>>D
The Medicare fee-for service appeal process for both beneficiaries and providers includes
all of the following levels EXCEPT:
a) Medical necessity review by an independent physician's panel
b) Judicial review by a federal district court
c) Redetermination by the company that handles claims for
Medicare
d) Review by the Medicare Appeals Council (Appeals Council) - CORRECT ANSWER >>>B
Business ethics, or organizational ethics represent:
a) The principles and standards by which organizations operate
b) Regulations that must be followed by law
c) Definitions of appropriate customer service
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CRCR MULTIPLE CHOICE FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS &

DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+

The disadvantages of outsourcing include all of the following EXCEPT: a) The impact of customer service or patient relations b) The impact of loss of direct control of accounts receivable services c) Increased costs due to vendor ineffectiveness d) Reduced internal staffing costs and a reliance on outsourced staff **- CORRECT ANSWER

** D The Medicare fee-for service appeal process for both beneficiaries and providers includes all of the following levels EXCEPT: a) Medical necessity review by an independent physician's panel b) Judicial review by a federal district court c) Redetermination by the company that handles claims for Medicare d) Review by the Medicare Appeals Council (Appeals Council) - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B Business ethics, or organizational ethics represent: a) The principles and standards by which organizations operate b) Regulations that must be followed by law c) Definitions of appropriate customer service

d) The code of acceptable conduct - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A A portion of the accounts receivable inventory which has NOT qualified for billing includes: a) Charitable pledges b) Accounts created during pre-registration but not activated c) Accounts coded but held within the suspense period d) Accounts assigned to a pre-collection agency - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A Local Coverage Determinations (LCD) and National Coverage Determinations (NCD) are Medicare established guideline(s) used to determine: a) Medicare and Medicaid provider eligibility b) Medicare outpatient reimbursement rates c) Which diagnoses, signs, or symptoms are reimbursable d) What Medicare reimburses and what should be referred to Medicaid - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C Days in A/R is calculated based on the value of: a) The total accounts receivable on a specific date b) Total anticipated revenue minus expenses c) The time it takes to collect anticipated revenue d) Total cash received to date - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C

A comprehensive "Compliance Program" is defined as a) Annual legal audit and review for adherence to regulations b) Educating staff on regulations c) Systematic procedures to ensure that the provisions of regulations imposed by a government agency are being met d) The development of operational policies that correspond to regulations - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C Case Management requires that a case manager be assigned a) To patients of any physician requesting case management b) To a select patient group c) To every patient d) To specific cases designated by third party contractual agreement **- CORRECT ANSWER

** B Pricing transparency is defined as readily available information on the price of healthcare services, that together with other information, help define the value of those services and enable consumers to a) Identify, compare, and choose providers that offer the desired level of value b) Customize health care with a personally chosen mix of providers c) Negotiate the cost of health plan premiums

d) Verify the cost of individual clinicians - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A Any healthcare insurance plan that provides or ensures comprehensive health maintenance and treatment services for an enrolled group of persons based on a monthly fee is known as a a) MSO b) HMO c) PPO d) GPO - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B In a Chapter 7 Straight Bankruptcy filing a) The court liquidates the debtor's nonexempt property, pays creditors, and discharges the debtor from the debt b) The court liquidates the debtor's nonexempt property, pays creditors, and begins to pay off the largest claims first. All claims are paid some portion of the amount owed c) The court vacates all claims against a debtor with the understanding that the debtor may not apply for credit without court supervision d) The court establishes a creditor payment schedule with the longest outstanding claims paid first - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A The core financial activities resolved within patient access include:

a) Revenue codes b) Correct Part A and B procedural codes c) The CMS 1500 Part B attachment d) Medical necessity documentation - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A Before classifying and subsequently writing off an account to financial assistance or bad debt, the hospital must establish policy, define appropriate criteria, implement procedures for identifying and processing accounts: a) Monitor compliance b) Have the account triaged for any partial payment possibilities c) Assist in arranging for a commercial bank loan d) Obtain the patients income tax statements from the prior 2 years **- CORRECT ANSWER

** A For routine scenarios, such as patients with insurance coverage or a known ability to pay, financial discussions: a) Are optional b) Should take place between the patient or guarantor and properly trained provider representatives c) May take place between the patient and discharge planning d) Are focused on verifying required third-party payer information **- CORRECT ANSWER ** B The purpose of a financial report is to:

a) Provide a public record, if reqluested b) Present financial information to decision makers c) Prepare tax documents d) Monitor expenses - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B Which statement is an EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act) violation? a) Registration staff may routinely contact managed are plans for prior authorizations before the patient is seen by the on-duty physician b) Initial registration activities may occur so long as these activities do not delay treatment or suggest that treatment with not be provided to uninsured individuals c) Co-payments may be collected at the time of service once the medical screening and stabilization activities are completed d) Signage must be posted where it can be easily seen and read by patients - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A A claim is denied for the following reasons, EXCEPT: a) The health plan cannot identify the subscriber b) The frequency of service was outside the coverage timeline c) The submitted claim does not have the physicians signature d) The subscriber was not enrolled at the time of service - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C Any provider that has filed a timely cost report may appeal an adverse final decision

determination is entitled to reconsideration of the decision. This type of appeal is known as a) A beneficiary appeal b) A Medicare supplemental review c) A payment review d) A Medicare determination appeal - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A The nuanced data resulting from detailed ICD-10 coding allows senior leadership to work with physicians to do all of the following EXCEPT: a) Drive significant improvements in the areas of quality and the patient experience b) Embrace new reimbursement models c) Improve outcomes d) Obtain higher compensation for physicians - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D Duplicate payments occur: a) When providers re-bill claims based on nonpayment from the initial bill submission b) When service departments do not process charges with the organization's suspense days c) When the payer's coordination of benefits is not captured correctly at the time of patient registration d) When there are other healthcare claims in process and the

anticipated deductibles and co-insurance amounts still show open but will be met by the in-process claims - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a The Affordable Care Act legislated the development of Health Insurance Exchanges, where individuals and small businesses can a) Purchase qualified health benefit plans regardless of insured's health status b) Obtain price estimates for medical services c) Negotiate the price of medical services with providers d) Meet federal mandates for insurance coverage and obtain the corresponding tax deduction - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A The most common resolution methods for credit balances include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Designate the overpayment for charity care b) Submit the corrected claim to the payer incorporating credits c) Either send a refund or complete a takeback form as directed by the payer d) Determine the correct primary payer and notify incorrect payer of overpayment - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A EFT (electronic funds transfer) is a) An electronic claim submission b) The record of payments in the hospital's accounting system

Recognizing that health coverage is complicated and not all patients are able to navigate this terrain, HFMA best practices specify that a) The patient accounts staff have someone assigned to research coverage on behalf of patients b) Patients should be given the opportunity to request a patient advocate, family member, or other designee to help them in these discussions c) Patient coverage education may need to be provided by the health plan d) A representative of the health plan be included in the patient financial responsibilities discussion - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B When there is a request for service, the scheduling staff member must confirm the patient's unique identification information to a) Check if there is any patient balance due b) Verify the patient's insurance coverage if the patient is a returning customer c) Confirm that physician orders have been received d) Ensure that she/he accesses the correct information in the historical database - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D Once the price is estimated in the pre-service stage, a provider's financial best practice is to

a) Explain to the patient their financial responsibility and to determine the plan for payment b) Allow the patient time to compare prices with other providers c) Lock-in the prices d) Have another employee double check the price estimate - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A What type of account adjustment results from the patient's unwillingness to pay a self- pay balance? a) Charity adjustment b) Bad debt adjustment c) Contractual adjustment d) Administrative adjustment - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B All of the following are conditions that disqualify a procedure or service from being paid for by Medicare EXCEPT a) Medically unnecessary b) Not delivered in a Medicare licensed care setting c) Offered in an outpatient setting d) Services and procedures that are custodial in nature - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D All of the following are forms of hospital payment contracting EXCEPT a) Contracted Rebating

meeting c) Pharmacy orders to the ICU have not been entered in the pharmacy system d) Transfer from ICU (intensive care unit) to the Medical/Surgical floor is not reflected in the registration system - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D Which of the following is required for participation in Medicaid? a) Meet income and assets requirements b) Meet a minimum yearly premium c) Be free of chronic conditions d) Obtain a health insurance policy - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A HFMA best practices call for patient financial discussions to be reinforced a) By issuing a new invoice to the patient b) By copying the provider's attorney on a written statement of conversation c) By obtaining some type of collateral d) By changing policies to programs - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B A Medicare Part A benefit period begins: a) With admission as an inpatient b) The first day in which an individual has not been a hospital inpatient not in a skilled nursing facility for the previous 60 days c) Upon the day the coverage premium is paid d) Immediately once authorization for treatment is provided by the

health plan - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A If further treatment can only be provided in a hospital setting, the patient's condition cannot be evaluated and/or treated within 24 hours, or if there is not an anticipation of improvement in the patient's condition with 24 hours, the patient a) Will remain in observation for up to 72 hours after which the patient is admitted as an inpatient b) Will be admitted as an inpatient c) Will be discharged and if needed, designated to a priority one outpatient status d) Will have his/her case reviewed by the attending physician, a consulting physician and the primary care physician and a future course of care will then be determined - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B It is important to have high registration quality standards because a) Incomplete registrations will trigger exclusion from Medicare participation b) Incomplete registrations will raise satisfaction scores for the hospital c) Inaccurate registration may cause discharge before full treatment is obtained d) Inaccurate or incomplete patient data will delay payment or cause denials - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D Medicare will only pay for tests and services that

c) The remaining registration processing is initiated at the bedside or in a registration area d) An initial registration records is completed so that the proper coding can be initiated - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C This directive was developed to promote and ensure healthcare quality and value and also to protect consumers and workers in the healthcare system. This directive is called a) Payer quality monitoring b) Medicare patient and staff safety standards c) Joint Commission for Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) safety d) Patient bill of rights - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D A scheduled inpatient represents an opportunity for the provider to do which of the following? a) Refer the patient to another location with the health system b) Comply with EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act) requirements before service c) Complete registration and insurance approval before service d) Register the patient after he or she is placed in a bed on that service unit. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C

The first and most critical step in registering a patient, whether scheduled or unscheduled, is a) Having the patient initial the HIPAA privacy statement b) Verifying insurance to activate the patient medical record c) Verifying the patient's identification d) Check the schedule for treatment availability - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C The legal authority to request and analyze provider clam documentation to ensure that IPPS services were reasonable and necessary is given to a) Recovery Audit Contractors (RAC) b) The Office of the U.S. Inspector General (OIG) c) All health plans d) State insurance commissioners - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B An advantage of a pre-registration program is a) The opportunity to reduce processing times at the time of service b) The ability to eliminate no-show appointments c) The opportunity to reduce the corporate compliance failures within the registration process d) The marketing value of such a program - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C Claims with dates of service received later than one calendar year beyond the date of service, will be