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CPC Practice Exam Questions And
Answers.
When a patient has a blood test for HIV that is inconclusive, what ICD-10-CM code is assigned a. Z b. R c. B d. Z11.4 - \b. R What does MRSA stand for a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus b. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus Aureus c. Moderate Resistance Susceptible Aureus d. Mild Resistance Steptococcus Aureus - \a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus What does the forth character in diabetes mellitus diabetes codes indicate? a. The condition as controlled or uncontrolled b. Any complication associated with diabetes c. Type of diabetes (type 1, or Type 2, secondary) d. If the diabetes is primary or secondary diabetes - \b. Any complication associated with diabetes When do you code acute respiratory failure as a secondary diagnosis a. the patient has any other condition at the same time b. When it is determined to be the cause of the shortness of breath c. Acute respiratory failure is always listed first d. When it occurs after admission - \d. When it occurs after admission When the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical note, what is used as the default type a. Type 2 b. Type 1 c. Can be type 1 or 2 d. Scondary diabetes -
\a. Type 2 When is it appropriate to use history of malignancy, from category Z a. once the malignancy is removed form that site but the patient is still receiving chemotherapy b. When the patient cancels treatment for that site c. It has been excised, no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, and there is not further treatment directed to the site d. when 5 years has passed after surgery - \c. It has been excised, no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, and there is not further treatment directed to the site If a patient uses insulin, what type of diabetic does it mean the patient is a. secondary diabetes b. type 2 c. type 1 d. the use of insulin does not specify the patient is a certain type of diabetic - \d. the use of insulin does not specify the patient is a certain type of diabetic Pneumonia due to adenovirus. What ICD-1-CM code is reported a. B34. b. J12. c. B97. d. B30.1 - \b. J12. a 50 year old patient has been diagnosed with elevated blood pressure. The patient does not have a history of hypertension. The correct ICD-10-CM code to report is a. R03. b. I c. I13. d. I15.0 - \b. I What type of fracture is considered traumatic a. pathologic fracture b. spontaneous fracture c. stress fracture d. compound fracture - \d. compound frature
\c. Chronic Kidney Disease Which statement is TRUE for reporting burn codes a. burn codes are coded by the anatomical site and sequenced form top to bottom of the anatomical body b. first degree burns involve the epidermis and dermis and should always be sequenced first for multiple degrees of burns. c. Sunburns are classified with traumatic burns and should be the only burn code reported d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code - \d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails a. Chapter 13: Diseases of Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue b. Chapter 16: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal c. Chapter 14: Diseases of the Genitourinary System d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue - \d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue What does the 7th character A indicate in Chapter 19 a. Initial encounter b. Subsequent encounter c. Sequela d. Adverse effect - \a. Initial encounter The provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported a. N18. b. N18.6, N18. c. N18.4, N18. d. N18.6 - \d. N18. What is the definition of a postpartum complication? a. any complication occurring within the six-week period prior to delivery b. b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery - \b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery What is NOT an example of active treatment for pathological fractures
a. Surgical treatment b. Emergency department encounter c. Evaluation and treatment by a new physician d. Cast change - \d. Cast change According to ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Chapter 15: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium (O00-O9A) codes have sequencing priority over what codes a. Codes from all other chapters b. All codes including Z33.1 - \a. Codes from all other chapters Many coding professionals go on to find work as a. Accountants b. Consultants - \b. Consultants A medical record contains information on all but what areas a. Observations b. Medical or surgical interventions c. Treatment outcomes d. Financial records - \d. Financial records Technicians who specialize in coding are called a. coding specialists b. LPN's - \a. coding specialists What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of education and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physician - \Physician Assistant (PA) The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is most significant to coders working in physician offices and covers physician fees without the use of a private insurer? - \Part B The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is affected by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid -Hierarchical Condition Categories (CMS-HCC) - \Part C
ABN stands for - \Advance Beneficiary Notice When are providers responsible for obtaining an ABN for a service not considered medically necessary a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary b. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary - \a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary A covered entity does NOT include a. Healthcare provider b. Patient c. Clearinghouse d. Health plan - \b. Patient What is the definition of coding a. deciphering explanation EOB provided by an insurance carrier b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to obtain reimbursement - \b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to obtain reimbursement Who is responsible for enforcing the HIPAA security rule - \OCR (Office of Civil Rights) Healthcare providers are responsible for developing ___ and policies and procedures regarding privacy in their practices a. Fees b. Notice of Privacy Practices - \Notice of Privacy Practices A covered entity may obtain consent of the individual to use or disclose PHI to carry out all but what of the following a. healthcare operations b. for public use - \for public use The minimum necessary rule is based on sound on sound current practice that protected health information should not be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean.
a. Practices should send records without releases b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access - \b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access The minimum necessary rule applies to a. Uses or disclosures that are required by other law b. Covered entities taking reasonable steps - \b. Covered entities taking reasonable steps HITECH provides a ___ day window which any violation not due to willful neglect may be corrected without penalty -
HITECH was enacted as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act in what year -
Which of the following choices is NOT a benefit of an active compliance plan a. faster, more accurate payment of claims b. eliminates risk of an audit c. Fewer billing mistakes d. Increased accuracy of physician documentation - \b. eliminates risk of an audit What will the scope of a compliance program depend on a.The insurance carrier the physician is contracted with b. Size and resources of the physician's practice - \b. Size and resources of the physician's practice Evaluation and Management services are often provided in a standard format such as SOAP. What does the acronym SOAP stand for - \Subjective Objective Assessment Plan According to the OIG, internal monitoring and auditing should be performed by what means a. Periodic audits b. a baseline audit - \a. Periodic audits
b. It tells you what you will be paid and why any changes to charges were made - \b. It tells you what you will be paid and why any changes to charges were made The OIG recommends that the physician's practice enforcement and disciplinary mechanisms be a. Frequent b. Consistent - \b. Consistent Each October the OIG releases a ___ outlining its priorities for the fiscal year ahead - \work plan Which provider is NOT a mid-level provider a. Physician Assistant b. Nurse Practitioner c. Anesthesiologist d. All choices are mid-level providers - \c. Anesthesiologist The AAPC was founded in what year -
According to the 2014 AAPC ____, it shows coders salaries rose 2% to an average of 50,030 for credential professional coders a. Specialty survey b. Credentialing survey c. Salary survey d. CPC review guide - \Salary survey AAPC credentialed coders have NOT proven mastery of a. code sets b. evaluation and management principles c. Administrative regulations d. documentation guidelines - \Administrative regulations The AAPC offers over 400 local chapters across the country for the purpose of - \Networking Which of the following is NOT a function of skin
a. acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A b. Excretes water, salt, and small amounts of waste c. houses sensory receptors for touch, pressure, pain, and temperature d. Plays an important role in regulation of body temperature - \Acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A Which layer is NOT considered part of the skin a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum germinativum c. epidermis d. hypodermis - \Hypodermis Which of the following is true of the stratum germinativum a. it is composed of about 30 layers of dead, flattened, keratinized cells b. it is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue c. it lies on top of the dermis and has access to a rich supply of blood - \c. it lies on top of the dermis and has access to a rich supply of blood WHich of the following best describes psoriasis a. an inflammatory condition characterized by redness pustular and vesicular lesions, crusts, and scales b. a contagious infection of skin generally caused by staphylococcus bacterium c. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated lesions, covered by silvery scales - \c. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated lesions, covered by silvery scales Muscle is attached to bone by what method a. tendons, and cartilage b. tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone - \Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone What is affected by myasthenia gravis a. Neuromuscular junction b. muscle/bone connection - \Neuromuscular junction Which bone(s) have trochanters - \Femur
