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ICD-10-CM Medical Coding Practice Exam: Questions and Verified Answers, Exams of Computer Science

A series of practice questions and verified answers related to medical coding, specifically focusing on icd-10-cm. It covers various aspects of coding, including the application of z codes, understanding diabetes mellitus codes, and identifying adverse effects. The questions are designed to test knowledge of coding guidelines and best practices in medical record management. This resource is valuable for students and professionals in medical coding, providing a practical way to assess and improve their skills in accurately translating medical documentation into numerical and alphanumerical codes for reimbursement purposes. The document also touches on topics such as the role of coding specialists, the structure of the medicare program, and compliance with hipaa regulations, offering a comprehensive overview of the coding landscape.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/17/2025

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CPC Practice Exam Questions And A+ Verified Answers
1. When a patient has a blood test for HIV that is inconclusive, what ICD-
10-CM code is assigned
a. Z21
b. R75
c. B20
d. Z11.4
ANS b. R75
2. What does MRSA stand for
a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
b. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
c. Moderate Resistance Susceptible Aureus
d. Mild Resistance Steptococcus Aureus
ANS a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococ- cus Aureus
3. What does the forth character in diabetes mellitus diabetes codes indi- cate?
a. The condition as controlled or uncontrolled
b. Any complication associated with diabetes
c. Type of diabetes (type 1, or Type 2, secondary)
d. If the diabetes is primary or secondary diabetes
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17

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Download ICD-10-CM Medical Coding Practice Exam: Questions and Verified Answers and more Exams Computer Science in PDF only on Docsity!

CPC Practice Exam Questions And A+ Verified Answers

1. When a patient has a blood test for HIV that is inconclusive, what ICD-

10-CM code is assigned

a. Z

b. R

c. B

d. Z11. ANS b. R

2. What does MRSA stand for

a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

b. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus Aureus

c. Moderate Resistance Susceptible Aureus

d. Mild Resistance Steptococcus Aureus

ANS a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococ- cus Aureus

3. What does the forth character in diabetes mellitus diabetes codes indi- cate?

a. The condition as controlled or uncontrolled

b. Any complication associated with diabetes

c. Type of diabetes (type 1, or Type 2, secondary)

d. If the diabetes is primary or secondary diabetes

ANS b. Any complication asso- ciated with diabetes

4. When do you code acute respiratory failure as a secondary diagnosis

a. the patient has any other condition at the same time

b. When it is determined to be the cause of the shortness of breath

c. Acute respiratory failure is always listed first

d. When it occurs after admission

ANS d. When it occurs after admission

5. When the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical note,

what is used as the default type

a. Type 2

b. Type 1

c. Can be type 1 or 2

d. Scondary diabetes

ANS a. Type 2

6. When is it appropriate to use history of malignancy, from category Z

9. a 50 year old patient has been diagnosed with elevated blood pressure. The

patient does not have a history of hypertension. The correct ICD-10-CM code to report is a. R03. b. I c. I13. d. I15. ANS b. I

10. What type of fracture is considered traumatic

a. pathologic fracture

b. spontaneous fracture

c. stress fracture

d. compound fracture

ANS d. compound frature

11. Can Z codes be listed as a primary code?

a. No; Z codes are never listed as primary codes

b. No; Z codes are always reported as secondary codes

c. No; Z codes are reported for external injuries and where it happened which is

always listed as secondary

d. Yes; Z codes can be sequenced as primary and secondary codes

ANS d. Yes; Z codes can be sequenced as primary and secondary codes

12. Where can you find the Table of Drugs and Chemicals

a. Tabular List of the ICD-10-CM codebook

b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook

c. Index to Procedures of the b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook

d. CPT codebook

ANS b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook

13. In which circumstances would an external cause code be reported

a. Delivery of a newborn

b. Causes of injury or health condition

c. Chemotherapy treatment of neoplasms

d. Only for the cause of motor vehicle accidents

ANS b. Causes of injury or health condition

14. What would be considered an adverse effect

a. Wound infection after surgery

17. Which statement is TRUE for reporting burn codes

a. burn codes are coded by the anatomical site and sequenced form top to

bottom of the anatomical body

b. first degree burns involve the epidermis and dermis and should always be

sequenced first for multiple degrees of burns.

c. Sunburns are classified with traumatic burns and should be the only burn code

reported

d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code

ANS d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code

18. What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails

a. Chapter 13

ANS Diseases of Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue

b. Chapter 16

ANS Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal

c. Chapter 14

ANS Diseases of the Genitourinary System

d. Chapter 12

ANS Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue ANS d. Chapter 12 ANS Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue

19. What does the 7th character A indicate in Chapter 19

a. Initial encounter

b. Subsequent encounter

c. Sequela

d. Adverse effect

ANS a. Initial encounter

20. The provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are

reported a. N18. b. N18.6, N18. c. N18.4, N18. d. N18. ANS d. N18.

21. What is the definition of a postpartum complication?

a. any complication occurring within the six-week period prior to delivery

b. b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery

ANS b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery

22. What is NOT an example of active treatment for pathological fractures

a. Surgical treatment

d. Financial records

ANS d. Financial records

26. Technicians who specialize in coding are called

a. coding specialists

b. LPN's

ANS a. coding specialists

27. What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of

education and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physi- cian ANS Physician Assistant (PA)

28. The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is most

significant to coders working in physician offices and covers physician fees without the use of a private insurer? ANS Part B

29. The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is affected by

the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid -Hierarchical Condition Categories (CMS- HCC) ANS Part C

30. What does CMS-HCC stand for

a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchial Condition Cate- gory

b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hospital Correct Coding

Initiative ANS a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchial Condition Category

31. When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be recommend- ed

a. Starting with the procedure listed

b. Reading the body of the report

c. Coding form the header without reading the body of the report.

d. Highlighting unfamiliar words

ANS c. Coding form the header without reading the body of the report.

32. Outpatient coders focus on learning which coding manuals

ANS CPT, HCPCS Level II, ICD-10-CM

33. If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed ona

Medicare patient, who determines coverage ANS MAC (Medicare Administrative Contractor)

34. The describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment

procedures, or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare.

a. NCD

b. Medicare Physician Fee Schedule

a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary

b. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary

ANS a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary

41. A covered entity does NOT include

a. Healthcare provider

b. Patient

c. Clearinghouse

d. Health plan

ANS b. Patient

42. What is the definition of coding

a. deciphering explanation EOB provided by an insurance carrier

b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to

obtain reimbursement ANS b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumer- ical codes used to obtain reimbursement

43. Who is responsible for enforcing the HIPAA security rule

ANS OCR (Office of Civil Rights)

44. Healthcare providers are responsible for developing and policies and

procedures regarding privacy in their practices

a. Fees

b. Notice of Privacy Practices

ANS Notice of Privacy Practices

45. A covered entity may obtain consent of the individual to use or disclose PHI

to carry out all but what of the following

a. healthcare operations

b. for public use

ANS for public use

46. The minimum necessary rule is based on sound on sound current prac- tice

that protected health information should not be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean.

a. Practices should send records without releases

b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access

ANS b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access

ANS b. Size and resources of the physician's practice

52. Evaluation and Management services are often provided in a standard

format such as SOAP. What does the acronym SOAP stand for ANS Subjective Objective Assessment Plan

53. According to the OIG, internal monitoring and auditing should be per-

formed by what means

a. Periodic audits

b. a baseline audit

ANS a. Periodic audits

54. Voluntary compliance programs also provide benefits by not only helping to

prevent erroneous or , but also by showing that the physician practice is making additional good faith efforts to submit claims appropriately

a. Mistaken principals

b. Fraudulent claims

ANS b. Fraudulent claims

55. How many components should be included in an effective compliance plan

ANS 7

56. According to AAPC's Code of Ethics, a member shall use only and

means in all professional dealings ANS Legal Ethical

57. Medicare Part D is what type of Insurance

ANS Prescription drug coverage available to all Medicare Beneficiaries

58. What type of health insurance provides coverage for low-income fami- lies

ANS Medicaid

59. What is PHI

ANS Protected Health Insurance

60. What form is used to send a provider's charge to the insurance carrier

ANS -

CMS-

61. Which option below is NOT a covered entity under HIPAA

a. Medicare

b. Medicaid

65. Each October the OIG releases a outlining its priorities for the fiscal

year ahead ANS work plan

66. Which provider is NOT a mid-level provider

a. Physician Assistant

b. Nurse Practitioner

c. Anesthesiologist

d. All choices are mid-level providers

ANS c. Anesthesiologist

67. The AAPC was founded in what year

ANS 1988

68. According to the 2014 AAPC , it shows coders salaries rose 2% to an

average of 50,030 for credential professional coders

a. Specialty survey

b. Credentialing survey

c. Salary survey

d. CPC review guide

ANS Salary survey

69. AAPC credentialed coders have NOT proven mastery of

a. code sets

b. evaluation and management principles

c. Administrative regulations

d. documentation guidelines

ANS Administrative regulations

70. The AAPC offers over 400 local chapters across the country for the

purpose of ANS Networking

71. Which of the following is NOT a function of skin

a. acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A

b. Excretes water, salt, and small amounts of waste

c. houses sensory receptors for touch, pressure, pain, and temperature

d. Plays an important role in regulation of body temperature

ANS Acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A

72. Which layer is NOT considered part of the skin

a. Stratum corneum

b. Stratum germinativum

c. epidermis

d. hypodermis

ANS Hypodermis