Download ICD-10-CM Medical Coding Practice Exam: Questions and Verified Answers and more Exams Computer Science in PDF only on Docsity!
CPC Practice Exam Questions And A+ Verified Answers
1. When a patient has a blood test for HIV that is inconclusive, what ICD-
10-CM code is assigned
a. Z
b. R
c. B
d. Z11. ANS b. R
2. What does MRSA stand for
a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
b. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
c. Moderate Resistance Susceptible Aureus
d. Mild Resistance Steptococcus Aureus
ANS a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococ- cus Aureus
3. What does the forth character in diabetes mellitus diabetes codes indi- cate?
a. The condition as controlled or uncontrolled
b. Any complication associated with diabetes
c. Type of diabetes (type 1, or Type 2, secondary)
d. If the diabetes is primary or secondary diabetes
ANS b. Any complication asso- ciated with diabetes
4. When do you code acute respiratory failure as a secondary diagnosis
a. the patient has any other condition at the same time
b. When it is determined to be the cause of the shortness of breath
c. Acute respiratory failure is always listed first
d. When it occurs after admission
ANS d. When it occurs after admission
5. When the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical note,
what is used as the default type
a. Type 2
b. Type 1
c. Can be type 1 or 2
d. Scondary diabetes
ANS a. Type 2
6. When is it appropriate to use history of malignancy, from category Z
9. a 50 year old patient has been diagnosed with elevated blood pressure. The
patient does not have a history of hypertension. The correct ICD-10-CM code to report is a. R03. b. I c. I13. d. I15. ANS b. I
10. What type of fracture is considered traumatic
a. pathologic fracture
b. spontaneous fracture
c. stress fracture
d. compound fracture
ANS d. compound frature
11. Can Z codes be listed as a primary code?
a. No; Z codes are never listed as primary codes
b. No; Z codes are always reported as secondary codes
c. No; Z codes are reported for external injuries and where it happened which is
always listed as secondary
d. Yes; Z codes can be sequenced as primary and secondary codes
ANS d. Yes; Z codes can be sequenced as primary and secondary codes
12. Where can you find the Table of Drugs and Chemicals
a. Tabular List of the ICD-10-CM codebook
b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook
c. Index to Procedures of the b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook
d. CPT codebook
ANS b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook
13. In which circumstances would an external cause code be reported
a. Delivery of a newborn
b. Causes of injury or health condition
c. Chemotherapy treatment of neoplasms
d. Only for the cause of motor vehicle accidents
ANS b. Causes of injury or health condition
14. What would be considered an adverse effect
a. Wound infection after surgery
17. Which statement is TRUE for reporting burn codes
a. burn codes are coded by the anatomical site and sequenced form top to
bottom of the anatomical body
b. first degree burns involve the epidermis and dermis and should always be
sequenced first for multiple degrees of burns.
c. Sunburns are classified with traumatic burns and should be the only burn code
reported
d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code
ANS d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code
18. What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails
a. Chapter 13
ANS Diseases of Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue
b. Chapter 16
ANS Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal
c. Chapter 14
ANS Diseases of the Genitourinary System
d. Chapter 12
ANS Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue ANS d. Chapter 12 ANS Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue
19. What does the 7th character A indicate in Chapter 19
a. Initial encounter
b. Subsequent encounter
c. Sequela
d. Adverse effect
ANS a. Initial encounter
20. The provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are
reported a. N18. b. N18.6, N18. c. N18.4, N18. d. N18. ANS d. N18.
21. What is the definition of a postpartum complication?
a. any complication occurring within the six-week period prior to delivery
b. b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery
ANS b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery
22. What is NOT an example of active treatment for pathological fractures
a. Surgical treatment
d. Financial records
ANS d. Financial records
26. Technicians who specialize in coding are called
a. coding specialists
b. LPN's
ANS a. coding specialists
27. What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of
education and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physi- cian ANS Physician Assistant (PA)
28. The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is most
significant to coders working in physician offices and covers physician fees without the use of a private insurer? ANS Part B
29. The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is affected by
the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid -Hierarchical Condition Categories (CMS- HCC) ANS Part C
30. What does CMS-HCC stand for
a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchial Condition Cate- gory
b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hospital Correct Coding
Initiative ANS a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchial Condition Category
31. When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be recommend- ed
a. Starting with the procedure listed
b. Reading the body of the report
c. Coding form the header without reading the body of the report.
d. Highlighting unfamiliar words
ANS c. Coding form the header without reading the body of the report.
32. Outpatient coders focus on learning which coding manuals
ANS CPT, HCPCS Level II, ICD-10-CM
33. If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed ona
Medicare patient, who determines coverage ANS MAC (Medicare Administrative Contractor)
34. The describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment
procedures, or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare.
a. NCD
b. Medicare Physician Fee Schedule
a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
b. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary
ANS a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
41. A covered entity does NOT include
a. Healthcare provider
b. Patient
c. Clearinghouse
d. Health plan
ANS b. Patient
42. What is the definition of coding
a. deciphering explanation EOB provided by an insurance carrier
b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to
obtain reimbursement ANS b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumer- ical codes used to obtain reimbursement
43. Who is responsible for enforcing the HIPAA security rule
ANS OCR (Office of Civil Rights)
44. Healthcare providers are responsible for developing and policies and
procedures regarding privacy in their practices
a. Fees
b. Notice of Privacy Practices
ANS Notice of Privacy Practices
45. A covered entity may obtain consent of the individual to use or disclose PHI
to carry out all but what of the following
a. healthcare operations
b. for public use
ANS for public use
46. The minimum necessary rule is based on sound on sound current prac- tice
that protected health information should not be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean.
a. Practices should send records without releases
b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access
ANS b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access
ANS b. Size and resources of the physician's practice
52. Evaluation and Management services are often provided in a standard
format such as SOAP. What does the acronym SOAP stand for ANS Subjective Objective Assessment Plan
53. According to the OIG, internal monitoring and auditing should be per-
formed by what means
a. Periodic audits
b. a baseline audit
ANS a. Periodic audits
54. Voluntary compliance programs also provide benefits by not only helping to
prevent erroneous or , but also by showing that the physician practice is making additional good faith efforts to submit claims appropriately
a. Mistaken principals
b. Fraudulent claims
ANS b. Fraudulent claims
55. How many components should be included in an effective compliance plan
ANS 7
56. According to AAPC's Code of Ethics, a member shall use only and
means in all professional dealings ANS Legal Ethical
57. Medicare Part D is what type of Insurance
ANS Prescription drug coverage available to all Medicare Beneficiaries
58. What type of health insurance provides coverage for low-income fami- lies
ANS Medicaid
59. What is PHI
ANS Protected Health Insurance
60. What form is used to send a provider's charge to the insurance carrier
ANS -
CMS-
61. Which option below is NOT a covered entity under HIPAA
a. Medicare
b. Medicaid
65. Each October the OIG releases a outlining its priorities for the fiscal
year ahead ANS work plan
66. Which provider is NOT a mid-level provider
a. Physician Assistant
b. Nurse Practitioner
c. Anesthesiologist
d. All choices are mid-level providers
ANS c. Anesthesiologist
67. The AAPC was founded in what year
ANS 1988
68. According to the 2014 AAPC , it shows coders salaries rose 2% to an
average of 50,030 for credential professional coders
a. Specialty survey
b. Credentialing survey
c. Salary survey
d. CPC review guide
ANS Salary survey
69. AAPC credentialed coders have NOT proven mastery of
a. code sets
b. evaluation and management principles
c. Administrative regulations
d. documentation guidelines
ANS Administrative regulations
70. The AAPC offers over 400 local chapters across the country for the
purpose of ANS Networking
71. Which of the following is NOT a function of skin
a. acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A
b. Excretes water, salt, and small amounts of waste
c. houses sensory receptors for touch, pressure, pain, and temperature
d. Plays an important role in regulation of body temperature
ANS Acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A
72. Which layer is NOT considered part of the skin
a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum germinativum
c. epidermis
d. hypodermis
ANS Hypodermis