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CPAN QUESTIONS WITH 100, Exams of Nursing

Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)Nursing

CPAN QUESTIONS WITH 100 | CPAN QUESTIONS WITH 100

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 09/12/2023

DrShirleyAurora
DrShirleyAurora 🇺🇸

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CPAN QUESTIONS WITH 100% COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS
3 CORRECT ANSWER When educating the patient on what to
expect during the administration of spinal anesthesia, the
perianesthesia nurse understands that the progression of
blockage occurs in the following order:
1. sensory, motor, autonomic
2. motor, sensory, autonomic
3. autonomic, sensory, motor
4. motor, autonomic, sensory
3 CORRECT ANSWER After extubation of a patient, which of
the following would be considered most serious?
1. Sore throat
2. Impaired swallowing ability
3. Inspiratory stridor
4. Hoarseness
1 CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following interventions
would be used first to maintain adequate perfusion and oxygen
supply to cardiac muscles following hepatic surgery in a patient
with a history of coronary artery disease:
1. Ensure a hemoglobin concentration ≥ 10 g.
2. Treat tachydysrhythmias and hypotension.
3. Monitor oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry.
4. Administer appropriate medications.
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Download CPAN QUESTIONS WITH 100 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

CPAN QUESTIONS WITH 100% COMPLETE

SOLUTIONS

3 CORRECT ANSWER When educating the patient on what to expect during the administration of spinal anesthesia, the perianesthesia nurse understands that the progression of blockage occurs in the following order:

  1. sensory, motor, autonomic
  2. motor, sensory, autonomic
  3. autonomic, sensory, motor
  4. motor, autonomic, sensory 3 CORRECT ANSWER After extubation of a patient, which of the following would be considered most serious?
  5. Sore throat
  6. Impaired swallowing ability
  7. Inspiratory stridor
  8. Hoarseness 1 CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following interventions would be used first to maintain adequate perfusion and oxygen supply to cardiac muscles following hepatic surgery in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease:
  9. Ensure a hemoglobin concentration ≥ 10 g.
  10. Treat tachydysrhythmias and hypotension.
  11. Monitor oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry.
  12. Administer appropriate medications.

4 CORRECT ANSWER The use of the pulse oximeter has become a routine part of PACU care. The post anesthesia nurse may decide that oximetry monitoring is indicated when the patient:

  1. has had minor surgery.
  2. has normal vital signs.
  3. has had regional anesthesia.
  4. is severely hypothermic. 3 CORRECT ANSWER The perianesthesia nurse is aware that a dramatic decrease in the calcium may be cause by removal of the:
  5. pituitary gland.
  6. thyroid gland.
  7. parathyroid gland.
  8. adrenal glands. 2 CORRECT ANSWER Tidal volume is most precisely defined as the amount of:
  9. air exchange in one minute.
  10. gas passing into or out of the lungs in each respiratory cycle.
  11. gas remaining within the chest after maximal expiration.
  12. air exchange with full inspiration and expiration. 4 CORRECT ANSWER In caring for a preschool-aged child, the perianesthesia nurse is aware that the child's primary cause of anxiety prior to surgery is:

3 CORRECT ANSWER A pathological process that can interfere with accurate measurements of SpO2 when using a pulse oximeter is:

  1. Cushing's disease.
  2. hypoparathyroidism.
  3. Raynaud's disease.
  4. hyperthyroidism. 2 CORRECT ANSWER In the event that a pharmacologically paralyzed patient is inadvertently extubated, the first priority of the PACU nurse is to:
  5. administer a muscarinic anticholinergic drug immediately.
  6. establish and maintain the airway and ventilation.
  7. administer an anticholinesterase drug immediately.
  8. assess for muscle recovery before reintubating. 2 CORRECT ANSWER A PACU nurse identifies an increased number of postoperative infections and utilizes a quality improvement tool to collect more data. When deficiencies are noted in the Phase I area, the nurse next considers:
  9. developing a poster board on commonly used antibiotics.
  10. presenting staff with an in-service on infection control.
  11. apprising the infectious disease service of the occurrences.
  12. notifying the OR clinical specialist. 2 CORRECT ANSWER A staff nurse denied a merit increase expresses vigorous support for management and its policies

instead of showing anger. The nurse's behavior is characterized as:

  1. identification.
  2. reaction formation.
  3. sublimation.
  4. rationalization. 2 CORRECT ANSWER A standard of practice for post anesthesia nursing is established by which acceptable levels of nursing action?
  5. Promoting independent nursing judgment
  6. Specifying the nursing goal while defining appropriate nursing measures
  7. Identifying the nursing actions that meet JCAHO criteria
  8. Prescribing the nursing intervention relative to standing orders 3 CORRECT ANSWER A PACU education/research committee should have three commitments, which must include all of the following except:
  9. development of innovative thinking.
  10. freedom of inquiry.
  11. individual progress of each nurse.
  12. excellence in practice. 2 CORRECT ANSWER The dissociative state attributed to ketamine anesthesia can be modified by the administration of a/an:
  1. nausea.
  2. pain. 3 CORRECT ANSWER During emergence from general anesthesia, a patient exhibits rapidly increasing symptoms of asthma. Vital signs are: BP = 190/100, HR = 144, R = 36, and SaO2 = 86%. The perianesthesia nurse anticipates giving which of the following medications initially?
  3. Dexamethasone
  4. Nebulized epinephrine
  5. Nebulized albuterol
  6. Isoproterenol 3 CORRECT ANSWER A patient with streptococcal group A pharyngitis arrives in Phase I PACU. The perianesthesia nurse plans that the nurse to patient ratio should be:
  7. two nurses to one patient.
  8. one nurse to two patients.
  9. one nurse to one patient.
  10. one nurse to three patients. 3 CORRECT ANSWER A 35-year-old patient arrives in the Phase I PACU crying and repeatedly asks, "Can't my mother come in here with me?" The perianesthesia nurse:
  11. informs the patient that visitation is prohibited in the PACU.
  12. reassures the patient and administers an analgesic.
  13. allows a brief visit at a time appropriate for patient, visitors, and staff.
  1. sedates the patient secondary to post anesthetic confusion. 3 CORRECT ANSWER In a patient status post thyroidectomy, the perianesthesia nurse would anticipate postoperative signs of thyrotoxic crisis to include:
  2. hyponatremia.
  3. hypothermia.
  4. tachycardia.
  5. bradycardia. 3 CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following nursing interventions is most effective for a patient with a history of postoperative nausea and vomiting?
  6. Providing ice chips
  7. Administering ranitidine
  8. Prevention
  9. Avoiding administration of analgesics 2 CORRECT ANSWER A perianesthesia nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient who asks questions about the phenazopyridine prescription. The nurse explains that it:
  10. needs to be taken on an empty stomach.
  11. provides relief from urgency and burning sensation.
  12. helps minimize bleeding and formation of blood clots.
  13. treats bacteria present in the urinary tract.
  1. alveolar collapse.
  2. decreased intrapulmonary shunting.
  3. increased cardiac output.
  4. hypertension. 1 CORRECT ANSWER A patient complains of dyspnea and chest pain after the insertion of a central-line catheter. The patient's breath sounds are diminished. After physician notification, the priority nursing action is to:
  5. prepare for the insertion of a chest tube.
  6. obtain an order for analgesic.
  7. apply a positive-pressure airway ventilator.
  8. prepare for immediate removal of the central line. 2 CORRECT ANSWER The dissociative state attributed to ketamine anesthesia can be modified by the administration of a/an:
  9. antiarrhythmic.
  10. benzodiazepine.
  11. antagonist.
  12. anticonvulsant. 3 CORRECT ANSWER Care for a patient who receives a skin graft to the forearm includes:
  13. maintain dependent position of the extremity.
  14. changing the bandages if necessary.
  15. elevation of the affected extremity.
  1. ROM exercises for the affected extremity. 1 Use of meperidine with an MAOI can lead to hypertension, convulsions, and coma. CORRECT ANSWER The perianesthesia nurse learns that the patient takes MAO inhibitor routinely. This information is documented because of the potential lethal interaction with:
  2. meperidine.
  3. midazolam.
  4. succinylcholine.
  5. morphine. 2 CORRECT ANSWER Prochlorperazine acts to treat postoperative nausea by affecting the:
  6. process of gastric emptying.
  7. chemoreceptor trigger zone.
  8. production of gastric acid.
  9. vestibular pathways. 1 CORRECT ANSWER In a 3-year-old patient, postintubation croup is least likely to develop when the patient has:
  10. remained in a supine position for a 1-hour procedure.
  11. been in a supine position for 15 minutes, then in a lateral position for 45 minutes.
  12. coughed actively and strained prior to extubation.
  13. required two attempts prior to successful intubation.

and allows for the best blood flow to the fetus, uterus, and kidneys. CORRECT ANSWER A patient 7 months pregnant is admitted for repair of a lacerated Achilles tendon. During assessment, contractions of her abdomen are noted. Which of the following positions should this patient be placed?

  1. Right lateral tilt position
  2. Left lateral tilt position
  3. Supine
  4. Trendelenburg 4 The axillary approach to the brachial plexus is considered the safest of the four approaches because of reduced risk to surrounding structures such as the risk of phrenic nerve blockade and/or pneumothorax, but the general risks of accidental intravascular and intraneural injection still exists. CORRECT ANSWER When preparing a patient for a brachial plexus nerve block for upper extremity surgery, the perianesthesia nurse is aware that the safest and easiest approach is:
  5. subclavicular.
  6. supraclavicular.
  7. interscalene.
  8. axillary. 1 CORRECT ANSWER To decrease nausea, the perianesthesia nurse instructs the patient to:
  1. take deep breaths.
  2. take several quick breaths.
  3. turn their head to the side.
  4. utilize Reiki or imagery.

Halothane also has excellent bronchodilatory properties and remains an acceptable alternative for induction Isoflurane - Isoflurane is a good bronchodilator, but it is not ideal for induction of anesthesia since it is more pungent than sevoflurane and halothane and has a slower onset than sevoflurane. Sevoflurane - We prefer sevoflurane for inhalation induction since it has the most pronounced bronchodilatory properties of the available agents. Desflurane - We avoid desflurane during induction of anesthesia in patients with COPD. Because of its extreme pungency, desflurane may increase secretions and cause coughing, laryngospasm, and/or bronchospasm during induction, particularly in current smokers, and it may increase airway resistance. CORRECT ANSWER The perianesthesia nurse would expect a patient with COPD to have received which of the following anesthetic agents?

  1. Isoflurane
  2. Nitrous oxide
  3. Enflurane
  1. battery. 1 CORRECT ANSWER A preoperative patient is admitted to the holding area prior to joint surgery. The patient asks what the facility is doing to prevent postoperative surgical site infections. The perianesthesia nurse is aware that according to the surgical care improvement project (SCIP), preop antibiotics should be administered:
  2. within 60 minutes of incision time.
  3. prior to induction.
  4. prior to leaving the holding area.
  5. upon arrival to the facility. 1 CORRECT ANSWER The perianesthesia nurse is aware that a dramatic decrease in the serum calcium level may be caused by removal of the:
  6. parathyroid glands.
  7. pineal gland.
  8. adrenal glands.
  9. pituitary gland. 3 increased salivation due to stimulation of muscarinic receptors (can be contolled using an antimuscarinic) Other Side Effects: catatonia amnesia

deficits in working and episodic memory (associated with frequent use) analgesia elevated heart rate, cardiac output & blood pressure post-op disorientation sensory & perceptual illusions vivid dreams ulcerative cystitis (associated with chronic drug use) Contraindications: CORRECT ANSWER The perianesthesia nurse recognizes that upon a patient's arrival to the PACU, a side effect of ketamine anesthesia is:

  1. decreased muscle tone.
  2. hypotension.
  3. marked salivation.
  4. nausea and vomiting. 2 CORRECT ANSWER By asking a tympanoplasty patient to wrinkle the forehead, pucker lips, smile, and squeeze eyelids together, the PACU nurse is assessing the function of cranial nerve:
  5. V.
  6. VII.
  7. IX.
  8. XII. 2 CORRECT ANSWER The Faces Pain Rating Scale measurement tool is most appropriate for:
  9. a 2-year-old toddler.

Body Mass Index more than 35 kg/m2? Age older than 50? Neck size large? (Measured around Adams apple)Is your shirt collar 16 inches / 40cm or larger? Gender = Male? CORRECT ANSWER The perianesthesia nurse should utilize which of the following screening tools to identify patients at risk for obstructive sleep apnea?

  1. STOP-Bang Questionnaire
  2. Aldrete Scoring Tool
  3. Ramsey Sedation Scale
  4. Pasero Opioid Induced Sedation Scale 4 CORRECT ANSWER The perianesthesia nurse receives a call inquiring about a patient who is in surgery. The perianesthesia nurse's initial action is to:
  5. transfer the call to the O.R. desk.
  6. advise to call back later.
  7. provide the information.
  8. inform the family of the call.

ASA 1: A normal healthy patient. ASA 2: A patient with a mild systemic disease. ASA 3: A patient with a severe systemic disease that is not life- threatening.

ASA 4: A patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. ASA 5: A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation. The patient is not expected to survive beyond the next 24 hours without surgery. ASA 6: A brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed with the intention of transplanting them into another patient. CORRECT ANSWER During a preoperative telephone interview, a 52-year-old patient states that he has been hospitalized twice in the past year for management of insulin- dependent diabetes mellitus. The ASA status of this patient is:

  1. Class I.
  2. Class II.
  3. Class III.
  4. Class IV. 3 Around half of all people with latex allergy have allergic reactions when eating particular foods, including avocado, banana, chestnut, kiwifruit, passionfruit, plum, strawberry and tomato. This is because some of the proteins in latex that cause latex allergy are also present in these fruits. CORRECT ANSWER During a preoperative interview a patient admits to being allergic to avocados. The nurse is aware that this patient may be at risk for an allergic reaction to:
  5. propofol.
  6. midazolam.
  7. latex.