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COMMERCIAL PILOT CERTIFICATION WRITTEN EXAM 2025-2026|ACTUAL 200Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+, Exams of Aviation

COMMERCIAL PILOT CERTIFICATION WRITTEN EXAM 2025-2026|ACTUAL 200QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS|ALREADY GRADED A+

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2024/2025

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COMMERCIAL PILOT CERTIFICATION WRITTEN
EXAM 2025-2026|ACTUAL 200QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS|ALREADY GRADED A+
Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage
A.) which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics. B.) to an
engine caused by engine failure in flight.
C.) which requires repairs to landing gear.
- A.) which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.
NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident?
A.) Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing.
B.) Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties
because of illness.
C.) Engine failure for any reason during flight.
- B.) Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because
of illness.
Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified
immediately?
A.) Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch. B.) In-
flight fire.
C.) Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to
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Download COMMERCIAL PILOT CERTIFICATION WRITTEN EXAM 2025-2026|ACTUAL 200Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+ and more Exams Aviation in PDF only on Docsity!

COMMERCIAL PILOT CERTIFICATION WRITTEN

EXAM 2025-2026|ACTUAL 200QUESTIONS AND

ANSWERS|ALREADY GRADED A+

Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantialdamage A.) which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.B.) to an engine caused by engine failure in flight. C.) which requires repairs to landing gear.

  • A.) which adversely affectsstructural strength or flight characteristics. NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of whichincident? A.) Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing. B.) Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness. C.) Engine failure for any reason during flight.
  • B.) Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness. Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office benotified immediately? A.) Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch.B.) In- flight fire. C.) Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to

other property of more than $25,000.

  • B.) In-flight fire. Which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? A.) Cabin door opened in-flight. B.) Flight control system malfunction or failure. C.) Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure.
  • B.) Flight controlsystem malfunction or failure. During flight a fire, which was extinguished, burned the insulation froma transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations? A.) An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to thenearest NTSB field office. B.) No notification or report is required. C.) A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAAFlight Standards District Office within 48 hours.
  • A.) An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office. When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB ifthere was substantial damage and no injuries?

A.) Class D, which thenbecomes Class E. Regulations which refer to "commercial operators" relate to thatperson who A.) for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in aircommerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier. B.) is the owner of a small scheduled airline. C.) for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an air carrier. – A.) for Regulations which refer to "operate" relate to that person whoA.) is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. B.) acts as pilot in command of the aircraft. C.) causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.

  • C.) causes theaircraft to be used or authorizes its use. Regulations which refer to the "operational control" of a flight are inrelation to A.) the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating aflight. C.) acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. - B.) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air

commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.

flight. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimumsteady flight speed in a specified configuration? A.) VS0. B.) VS. C.) VS1.

- C.) VS. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimumsteady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? C.) VS. - C.) VS. 14 CFR part 1 defines V[subscript F] as A.) flap operating speed. B.) maximum flap extended speed. C.) design flap speed. - C.) design flap speed. 14 CFR part 1 defines V[subscript NO] asA.)

A.) VS1.

B.) VS0.

B.) speed for best rate of climb. C.) speed for best rate of descent.

  • B.) speed for best rate of climb. If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?A.) Limited acrobatics, excluding spins. B.) Any maneuver except acrobatics or spins. C.) Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved). - C.) Limitedacrobatics, including spins (if approved.) Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilotcertificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when A.) acting as pilot in command.B.) piloting for hire only. C.) carrying passengers only. - A.) acting as pilot in command. Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings? A.) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea. B.) Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic. C.) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. - A.) Single-engineland,

multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea. Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?A.) No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months. B.) No, it is issued without a specific expiration date. C.) Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued. - B.) No, it is issued without a specific expirationdate. A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges? A.) Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.B.) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year. C.) Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year. - B.) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year. When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and classrating appropriate to the aircraft being flown? A.) All solo flights. B.) On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector. C.) On flights when carrying another person. - C.) On flights whencarrying another person. Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold atype rating

occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot. What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilotexercising the privileges of a commercial certificate? A.) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meetrequirements for a certificate, rating or flight review. B.) Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements. C.) All flight time flown for compensation or hire. - A.) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements fora certificate, rating or flight review. If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengersshould be carried is C.) 1959 CST. - C.) 1959 CST. Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in A.) any category aircraft.

A.) 1800 CST.

B.) 1900 CST.

B.) the same category and class of aircraft to be used. C.) the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required). - C.) the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a typerating is required). No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unlessthat pilot has, within the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, at least A.) six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting andtracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category. B.) six instrument flights and six approaches. C.) thr - A.) six instrument approaches, holding procedures, interceptingand tracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding A.) 12 calendar months.B.) 6 calendar month. C.) 24 calendar months. - C.) 24 calendar months.

actual glider tows under the supervision of a qualified tow pilot. - A.) three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by aqualified tow pilot. What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot - airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carriage of passengers A.) or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to aradius of 50 NM. B.) for fire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights. C.) for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night is prohibited. - C.) for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night is prohibited. What is the maximum amount of flight instruction an authorized instructor may give in any 24 consecutive hours? A.) 6 hours. B.) 4 hours. C.) 8 hours. - C.) 8 hours. Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airwaysextend from A.) 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. B.) 1, feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

C.) 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. - B.) 1,200feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR part 91? A.) Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA FlightStandards District Office. B.) Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of thatdeviation to the Administrator. C.) Advise ATC of the pilot in command's intentions. - B.) Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation tothe Administrator. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safeflight? A.) The owner or operator.B.) The pilot in command. C.) A certificated aircraft mechanic. - B.) The pilot in command. When operating a U.S-registered civil aircraft, which document isrequired by regulation to be available in the aircraft? A.) A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual. B.) A manufacturer's Operations Manual. C.) An Owner's Manual. - A.) A current, approved Airplane FlightManual.

flights only. C.) any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. - C.) any flight not in thevicinity of an airport. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. Inaddition, the pilot must A.) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, andthe alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed. B.) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. C.) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination air - A.) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must A.) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequatetakeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. B.) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed. C.) be familiar with all inst - B.) be familiar with the runway lengths atairports of

intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed. Required flight crewmembers' safety belts must be fastened A.) only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard theaircraft. B.) while the crewmembers are at their stations. C.) only during takeoff and landing. - B.) while the crew members are attheir stations. Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or hershoulder harness fastened A.) during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to performrequired duties. B.) while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she isunable to perform required duties. C.) during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft. - A.) during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable toperform required duties. With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is requiredduring movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for A.) each person over 2 years of age on board. B.) safe operating practice, but not required by regulations. C.) commercial passenger operations only. - A.) each person over 2 years of

If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly fromthat airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for A.) 30 minutes at slow cruising speed. B.) 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C.) 1 hour at normal cruising speed. - B.) 45 minutes at normal cruisingspeed. A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for A.) Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas. B.) all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface). C.) both answer A and B. - A.) Class A, Class B, and Class C airspaceareas. In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above C.) 14,500 feet MSL. - B.) 10,000 feet MSL.

A.) 12,500 feet MSL.

B.) 10,000 feet MSL.

What is the maximum bearing error (+ or - ) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal? C.) 4 degrees. - C.) 4 degrees. In accordance with 14 CFR part 91, supplemental oxygen must be usedby the required minimum flight crew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of C.) 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL. - B.) 12, feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL. What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressurealtitudes above 15,000 feet MSL? A.) Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon. B.) The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplementaloxygen. C.) Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew. - B.) The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen. Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR nightflights? A.) Gyroscopic direction indicator. B.) Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.

A.) 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

B.) 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.

A.) 6 degrees.

B.) 8 degrees.