Color Repair Technician - Final Assessment Review - IICRC 2025, Exams of Advanced Education

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Color Repair Technician

Final Assessment Review

(Questions & Solutions)

1. A client presents with uneven hair color after using a high-lift blonde kit. The hair shows warm brassy tones and patchy lightening. What is the most likely cause? A) Using a developer with too low volume B) Inadequate pre-lightening and poor product mixing C) Too short processing time D) Hair was overly porous before application ANS : B Rationale: Uneven lightening and warm brassiness typically result from inadequate or uneven pre-lightening and improper mixing of the product, leading to inconsistent lift and unwanted warm tones.
2. When performing a color correction on hair with previously applied semi-permanent color, what is the best approach to remove the semi-permanent pigment? A) Use a bleach bath (color removal with low volume peroxide) B) Apply a higher volume developer directly C) Use a color remover specifically designed for direct dyes D) Use permanent hair color formulation ANS : C Rationale: Semi-permanent colors are usually direct dyes and cannot be removed effectively with peroxide; a specifically formulated color remover works by breaking down the dye molecules without damaging the hair.
3. You are tasked with neutralizing green tones on pre-lightened blonde hair. Which toner would you select? A) Red-based toner B) Magenta or red-violet-based toner C) Yellow-based toner D) Blue-based toner

D) Use a stronger developer to seal the hair ANS : B Rationale: Severely damaged hair needs rebuilding through protein and moisture treatments to restore elasticity before safely applying further chemicals.

7. You want to formulate a color to achieve a cool beige blonde on level 8 hair. Which base tone and tone modifier would you choose? A) Yellow base with gold tones B) Neutral base with ash (blue-green) tones C) Red base with copper tones D) Warm base with orange tones ANS : B Rationale: Ash tones (blue-green) cool down warm yellow bases, helping achieve a cool beige blonde.
8. What is the effect of increasing developer volume from 10 to 30 on hair color lightening? A) Decreases lift, intensifies tone B) Increases lift by opening cuticle and activating more pigment removal C) Changes hair porosity D) Has no effect on lift ANS : B Rationale: Higher volume developers produce more peroxide, lifting more pigment by opening the cuticle more aggressively.
9. How does the Law of Color help in formulating a color to counteract unwanted tones? A) It describes hair damage patterns B) It identifies the direct action of pigment on hair texture C) It establishes complementary color relationships for neutralizing

unwanted tones D) It explains hair growth cycles ANS : C Rationale: The Law of Color relates to understanding complementary colors used to neutralize undesired hues during color formulation.

10. A client with level 6 hair requests a vibrant red. The hair has metallic residue from a previous dye job. How should you proceed? A) Start with a metallic residue remover before coloring B) Apply red dye directly to hair C) Use a 40 volume developer for better lift D) Shampoo twice and proceed with color ANS : A Rationale: Metallic residues can cause uneven color results and chemical reactions; removing metallic residue is essential before re- coloring.
11. In permanent hair color, what role does ammonia or an ammonia substitute play in the formulation? A) It opens the hair cuticle for color penetration B) It lightens hair cuticle C) It provides pigmentation D) It conditions the hair ANS : A Rationale: Ammonia opens the hair cuticle to allow color molecules and developer to penetrate the cortex.
12. Which developer volume is most suitable for depositing color without lifting natural pigment? A) 10 volume B) 20 volume C) 30 volume

ANS : A

Rationale: Previous treatments, natural level, and porosity heavily influence how the hair accepts and holds new color.

16. A color repair technician needs to avoid scalp irritation for a client with sensitive skin. What developer and product choice is preferable? A) Use 40 volume peroxide with permanent color B) Use ammonia-free, low volume peroxide formulations C) Bleach with high alkalinity D) Use a bleach bath ANS : B Rationale: Ammonia-free and low-volume peroxide formulas are less irritating and better for sensitive scalps.
17. Which color application technique is most appropriate for achieving dimensional blonde highlights without harsh lines? A) Solid color application all over B) Foil highlighting with varied section thickness C) Cap highlighting only D) Bleach bath only ANS : B Rationale: Foil highlighting with varied section thickness allows for controlled lightening and natural-looking dimension.
18. If the hair is overly porous and absorbs too much color leading to a darker-than-intended result, what step should be taken in the formulation? A) Increase the developer volume B) Dilute the color with a filler or use a less pigmented tone C) Apply color on dry hair only D) Increase processing time

ANS : B

Rationale: Using a filler or dilution reduces pigment concentration so that overly porous hair doesn’t absorb excessive color.

19. A client’s hair has turned orange after bleaching. What corrective color should be applied immediately? A) Blue or blue-green toner B) Red toner C) Yellow toner D) Orange toner ANS : A Rationale: Blue or blue-green toners neutralize orange tones, as blue is complementary to orange on the color wheel.
20. Why is strand testing critical prior to full chemical application? A) It predicts final color result and tests hair tolerance to chemicals B) It speeds up the coloring process C) It makes color application easier D) Strand test is not necessary for advanced technicians ANS : A Rationale: Strand tests provide crucial information on how hair will react to the product, allowing adjustments to prevent damage or undesired results.
21. When color depositing treatment is applied onto porous hair, what is the expected outcome? A) The color will deposit evenly and fade slowly B) The color will deposit unevenly and fade rapidly C) No color will deposit D) The hair will lighten ANS : B Rationale: Porous hair tends to absorb color unevenly and loses

25. How does natural hair medulla affect hair lightening and coloring? A) The medulla has no effect on color processes as dye penetrates the cortex B) It speeds up the lightening process C) It adds warmth to the final color D) It prevents the developer from oxidizing pigment ANS : A Rationale: The medulla is the central core of the hair shaft and generally doesn’t affect color penetration or lightening, which targets the cortex.
26. A client wants a color that maintains maximum shine and color reflectivity. Which technological addition in color formulas contributes most to this effect? A) High ammonia content B) Silicone-based gloss enhancers C) High alkaline pH for cuticle opening D) Strong peroxide developer ANS : B Rationale: Silicone gloss enhancers smooth the cuticle, enhancing shine and color reflection.
27. Why would a technician choose a lower pH hair color formulation in sensitive or damaged hair? A) To increase lift and lighten hair faster B) To minimize cuticle opening and reduce hair damage C) To permanently deposit red pigments D) To alter natural hair texture ANS : B Rationale: Lower pH formulas reduce cuticle swelling, causing less damage especially on fragile or sensitive hair.

28. The term “filler” in color correction refers to: A) A chemical that removes old color B) A product that deposits missing underlying pigments before recoloring C) A shampoo formulation D) A type of developer ANS : B Rationale: Fillers replace lost or missing pigment to provide a consistent base for new color application.
29. Why are semi-permanent hair colors usually more suitable for coverage of gray hair than temporary colors? A) Semi-permanents penetrate the cortex more deeply and last longer B) Temporary colors lift hair cuticle C) Semi-permanent colors lighten the gray hair D) Temporary colors contain ammonia ANS : A Rationale: Semi-permanent colors penetrate deeper than temporary colors, offering better adhesion and durability on gray hair.
30. Why is it important to control processing time carefully during lightening services? A) To avoid under-processing and inconsistent results B) Because longer times always produce better color C) To preserve natural oils on the scalp only D) Processing time is not important ANS : A Rationale: Too short processing prevents proper lift; too long damages hair; careful timing is essential for consistent results.
31. In what situation would double-process coloring be necessary?

C) Cut hair short immediately D) Leave as is ANS : A Rationale: Toners or glazing treatments can temporarily even out color inconsistencies without further damage.

35. Why is using heat during color processing not always recommended? A) Heat can cause faster cuticle opening leading to over-processing and damage B) Heat prevents color penetration C) Heat neutralizes developer D) Heat softens hair cuticle permanently ANS : A Rationale: Heat accelerates chemical reactions potentially leading to excessive damage and uneven results.
36. A client’s hair is resistant to lift. What formulation adjustments can be made? A) Increase developer volume and use higher alkalinity formula B) Lower developer volume C) Add filler to the formulation D) Use direct dye only ANS : A Rationale: Resistant hair often requires stronger developer and higher alkalinity for effective lift.
37. Which technique is most appropriate to avoid color bleeding when coloring previously colored hair with multiple tones? A) Apply permanent color all over immediately B) Apply barrier creams and use foils or section carefully C) Use bleach baths

D) Overlap colors intentionally ANS : B Rationale: Proper sectioning and barrier application prevent colors from bleeding and mixing undesirably.

38. How does the presence of residual mineral buildup affect hair coloring? A) It can cause uneven color absorption and dullness B) It improves color longevity C) It is irrelevant to color application D) It increases hair shine ANS : A Rationale: Mineral buildup prevents even absorption and can lead to patchy color with poor shine.
39. Client hair shows a greenish tint after using a chlorine pool. What home care advice is appropriate? A) Use clarifying shampoos with chelating agents regularly B) Avoid washing hair for a week C) Use high-lift blonde dye at home D) Apply conditioner only ANS : A Rationale: Clarifying shampoos with chelating agents remove mineral deposits and help prevent greenish tint.
40. Which measurement tool is essential for accurate hair color formulation in a salon environment? A) Timer only B) Color wheel and hair level chart C) Hair dryer D) Scissors

color, creating a visible transition around the repair. Which of the following color mixing techniques is BEST suited for creating a custom color match for a small repair? a) Using pre-mixed color toners b) Mixing colors by volume c) Mixing colors by weight d) Relying solely on visual estimation Correct ANS : c) Mixing colors by weight Rationale: Mixing by weight offers the highest degree of accuracy, especially when working with small quantities, ensuring precise color formulation. In color theory, what is the term for the lightness or darkness of a color? a) Hue b) Saturation c) Value d) Chroma Correct ANS : c) Value Rationale: Value refers to the relative lightness or darkness of a color, ranging from black to white. What is the primary function of a "binder" in a paint formulation? a) To provide color b) To dissolve the pigments c) To hold the pigments together and adhere them to the surface d) To increase the drying time Correct ANS : c) To hold the pigments together and adhere them to the surface Rationale: The binder is the film-forming component of paint, responsible for adhesion and cohesion. When repairing a deep scratch on a car's clear coat, what is the recommended approach to minimize the risk of "tiger striping"?

a) Apply multiple thin coats of clear coat b) Use a high-build clear coat c) Sand the repair area aggressively d) Apply a single thick coat of clear coat Correct ANS : a) Apply multiple thin coats of clear coat Rationale: Multiple thin coats allow for better control and even distribution, reducing the chance of unevenness or tiger striping. What is the purpose of a "reducer" in automotive paint application? a) To add color b) To increase the gloss c) To adjust the viscosity of the paint d) To accelerate the drying time Correct ANS : c) To adjust the viscosity of the paint Rationale: Reducers thin the paint to the correct consistency for optimal spraying and flow. Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying the original paint code on a vehicle? a) Checking the owner's manual b) Looking on the driver's side door jamb c) Using a color matching software d) Consulting a paint supply store Correct ANS : b) Looking on the driver's side door jamb Rationale: The paint code is usually found on a sticker located on the driver's side door jamb. What does the term "opacity" refer to in the context of paint? a) The gloss level of the paint b) The ability of the paint to hide the underlying surface c) The drying time of the paint d) The color's intensity Correct ANS : b) The ability of the paint to hide the underlying surface Rationale: Opacity describes how well a paint covers the surface

What is the purpose of "fisheye eliminator" additive in paint? a) To increase the paint's viscosity b) To prevent the formation of fisheyes (small craters) in the paint film c) To accelerate the drying process d) To improve the paint's adhesion Correct ANS : b) To prevent the formation of fisheyes (small craters) in the paint film Rationale: Fisheye eliminator helps to reduce surface tension, preventing contaminants from causing fisheyes. Which of the following factors has the GREATEST impact on the durability of a paint repair? a) The brand of paint used b) The quality of the clear coat c) The ambient temperature during application d) The skill of the technician Correct ANS : d) The skill of the technician Rationale: Proper surface preparation, application techniques, and attention to detail are crucial for a durable repair. What is the function of a "hardener" in a two-part paint system? a) To provide color b) To act as a solvent c) To initiate the curing process d) To increase the gloss level Correct ANS : c) To initiate the curing process Rationale: The hardener (or catalyst) reacts with the resin to cause the paint to dry and harden. When repairing a large area with a solid color, what technique is often employed to ensure a uniform appearance? a) Applying the paint in a single, thick coat b) Using a "wet-on-wet" application method c) Applying the paint in overlapping passes

d) Spraying the paint from a far distance Correct ANS : c) Applying the paint in overlapping passes Rationale: Overlapping passes ensure even coverage and prevent streaks or variations in color. What is the purpose of a "tack cloth" in the paint preparation process? a) To remove dust and debris from the surface b) To apply primer c) To smooth out imperfections d) To increase the gloss level Correct ANS : a) To remove dust and debris from the surface Rationale: Tack cloths are used to clean the surface before painting, ensuring a clean and smooth finish. Which of the following is a common problem associated with applying paint in high humidity? a) Increased gloss b) Faster drying times c) Blushing (cloudiness) d) Improved adhesion Correct ANS : c) Blushing (cloudiness) Rationale: High humidity can trap moisture in the paint film, causing a cloudy or hazy appearance known as blushing. What is the primary safety concern when working with automotive paints and solvents? a) Risk of burns b) Risk of explosion or fire c) Risk of skin irritation d) Risk of eye strain Correct ANS : b) Risk of explosion or fire Rationale: Automotive paints and solvents are highly flammable and require proper ventilation and safety precautions to prevent fire or explosion.