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CMSRN Test Bank Practice Exam Questions And
100% Correct Answers
A patient has Ascites. What is a sign of Ascites?
A. High Epinephrine Levels B. Low Plasma Albumin levels C. High Plasma Oncotic levels D. Low Blood PRessure - ANSWER B. Low Plasma Albumin levels. The lack of pressure from plasma proteins will allow fluid to enter the wrong areas. Cirrhosis may develop in some cases.
What makes Ca-MRSA unique compared to other types of MRSA?
A. A. It is acquired in a hospital B. It is sexually transmitted C. It is through blood transfusion D. All of the above - ANSWER A. IT is Hospital acquired. Community-acquired MRSA usually 48 hours before admission
Foreign body aspiration involves an object in the:
A. Larynx B. Trachea C. Both A and B D. Neither A or B - ANSWER C. Both A and B. An object in the larynx or trachea blocking the airway.
A patient requires supplemental oxygen for a pulmonary treatment. Which of the following is correct about the oxygen that must be administered?
A. The oxygen should be constant B. The pressure should be high C. The pressure should be low D. The oxygen must be fully humidified - ANSWER D. The oxygen must be fully humidified. The humidification will allow the oxygen to circulate throughout the body.
What scan may help identify a case of appendicitis?
A. An Ultrasound B. A CT Scan C. An MRI D. All of the Above - ANSWER A. An ultrasound.
What is one true factor about peptic ulcer disease?
A. Stomach pain starts 30 min after eating? B. Malignant tumors may develop C. An endoscopy is needed D. Administration of NSAID can be problematic-ANSWER C. Peptic ulcer disease is diagnosed via endoscopy. Many hours will pass before abdominal pain is experienced
A patient has sickle cell disease. Which of the following statements are correctly described for the patient based upon the patient's disease?
A. The patient has less free hemoglobin
What test should be ordered for a patient exhibiting extreme lethargy and tiredness?
A. CT Scan B. A Pan culture C. An airway exam D. A fluid test - ANSWER A. A CT Scan. To rule out mental cerebral changes
A patient requires intracranial surgery. When would antibiotics be indicated?
A. Pre-operative B. Intra-operative C. When the patient stabilizes D. Do not add antibiotics - ANSWER C. When the patient stabilizes. Not every case requires the use of antibiotics
A patient's spleen has been removed. What vaccine should be given?
A. Recombivax B. Attenuvax C. Tetanus D. Pneumonia - ANSWER D. Pneumonia Vaccine. The spleen controls the immune system. Give the pneumonia vaccine to avoid pneumococcal sepsis from setting in
Attenuvax is a vaccine that may prevent:
A. Chicken pox B. Measles C. Hepatitis
D. HIV - ANSWER B. Measels
A patient is going to have a hematoma removed. Medication orders state that the patient needs a dose of Lantus the night before. What should be done? A. Full dose B. Half dose C. Omit dose D. Notify attendant of situation and notify first - ANSWER D. Notify attendant of situation and notify first.
A patient develops a fever approximately one week following a surgical operation. Which one of the following will NOT cause the fever?
A. Line infection B. Urinary tract infection C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Wound infection
A. A line infection. Generally, a line infection is not a common cause of post-operative fever within one week of surgery. This is a good mnemonic to remember causes of post-operative fever, the five W's: wind (atelectasis, aspiration, pneumonia), water (urinary tract infection), walking (deep vein thrombus), wound (wound infection), what the physician caused (drug fever, line infection). It is said that wind will cause fever in POD 1-2, water in POD 3-5, walk in POD 5-7, wound in POD 5-9, and physician complications will cause fever after the first week of surgery.
Is it appropriate to give a family member in grief over a relative's antidepressants?
A. Yes B. No C. Depends upon patient's response
B. Anger C. Denial d. Bargaining - ANSWER C. Denial
DABDA denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
What should happen when the Q wave appears on an ECG readout?
A. The readout will go up B. The readout will go down C. The depth will appear the same all around D. A stable line will develop - ANSWER B. The readout will go down. The q wave is then followed by the R wave, the highest point in the ECG readout
As soon as an HIV diagnosis is made, what vaccine should a patient receive?
A. Influenza B. HPV C. Pneumonia D. PCV13 - ANSWER D. PCV
A patient with magnesium deficiency can also exhibit this condition coupled with hypomagnesemia:
A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hypokalemia - ANSWER C. Hypophoshatemia
What is it that a patient should avoid consuming to prevent listeriosis?
A. Carbonated drinks B. Sugary products C. Processed meats D. Pasteurized milk - ANSWER C. Processed meats. Listeriosis is a serious infection people get after eating contaminated food.
Which of the following is part of standard treatment for scabies?
A. Handwashing B. Condom C. Lamisil treatment D. Permetherin treatment - ANSWER D. Permethrin treatment
A nurse speaks with a patient regarding the patient's current medical issues. At what stage of the nursing process should the nurse ask the patient about the severity of her condition?
A. Evaluation B. Implementation C. Planning D. Diagnosis - ANSWER C. Planning What is the most common form of cancer occurring in AIDS In patients A. Lung B. Liver
A. One Year B. Three years C. Five years D. Ten years - ANSWER D. Ten years
What can a patient with gout do to avoid the onset of gout flare-ups or attacks?
A. Reduce intake of alcohol B. Increase intake of seafood C. Increase intake of sugar D. Increase intake of calcium - ANSWER D. Increase consumption of Calcium
Can a patient consume caffeine safely if he or she has gout?
A. Coffee can alleviate the symptoms of gout B. Carbonated drinks can alleviate symptoms of gout C. Caffeine is absolutely forbidden because it can trigger or exacerbate symptoms of gout D. Depending on a patient's conditions - ANSWER A. Coffee could lower symptoms of gout
It is important to take the coffee plain, without the heavy sugars which often accompany them. These sugars can cause gout symptoms to flare up. All sugary caffeinated carbonated beverages should be avoided.
What is the timing that the use of warfarin should be stopped?
A. When the patient feels excessively hungry B. When the patient's knees start aching
C. When the patient becomes hyperfocused D. When the patient's gums start bleeding? - ANSWER D. When the patient's gums start bleeding
What is the most serious problem associated with narcotics? A. They can lead to heart damage B. They can increase bowel fatigue C. They can increase blood pressure D. It is easily possible to become addicted to them - ANSWER D. It is easily possible to become addicted to them
A child may be at risk of developing priapism due to:
A. Sickle Cell Disease B. Hypotension C. A certain trauma D. ADD medication intake - ANSWER A. Sickle Cell Anemia
Though the condition is more evident among adults, a child may develop the issue due to the blood cells sticking in different parts of the body. The cells may remain in the penile area, thus causing priaprism
Which one of these tests is NOT required for the patient who has a pulmonary embolism? A. An echocardiogram B. X-Ray C. An Arterial blood gas draw D. A ventilation perfusion scan - ANSWER D. An echocardiogram An echocardiogram is not required for a PE diagnosis. The echocardiogram will
A patient develops a swollen calf a few days after surgery. What is an appropriate treatment or next step?
A. Consult another physician B. Massage the calf C. Send the patient to the emergency room D. Complete exercised on the patient's leg - ANSWER A. Consult another physician
A patient has an elevated risk of developing condyloma acuminate based on:
A. Family history B. Abstinence C. Drug use D. Pregnancy - ANSWER C. Drug use - This condition is also known as genital warts. Drug use includes the misuse of birth control drugs. The sexual activities that one engages in may become an issue
Priapism is caused by
A. Cocaine use B. Anemia C. A Groin injury D. bladder cancer - ANSWER A. A groin injury priaprism is a sustained erection of the penis, often not related to sexual stimulation.
A female with acute bleeding of the uterus should be said with a:
A. Pap smear B. Uterine biopsy C. Pregnancy test D. Pelvic review - ANSWER C. A pregnancy test should be performed to rule out any miscarriages.
What is responsible for the development of parkinson's disease?
A. A stroke B. A spinal cord injury C. A prion infection D. Lewy bodies - ANSWER D. Lewy bodies
Patient experiences uncontrollable tingling and weakness of the hands and feet. What would be the first question that a nurse should ask the patient before treatment can begin?
A. When did the patient start experiencing the condition B. What activities aggravate the pain of the patient C. Has the patient had an infection recently D. If the patient had witnessed such symptoms previously - ANSWER C. Has the patient had an infection recently?
GBS and this may be elucidated by history taking if they had an infection recently
Which of the following complication related to temporal arteritis should be addressed first?
A. Lower extremity irritation
A Pulmonary Embolism is diagnosed thru a D- Dimer blood test. Which of the following would reveal the presence of a PE?
A. High D- Dimer results B. Low D- Dimer results C. Dramatic changes in the D- Dimer totals over time D. D-dimer values make no difference - ANSWER A. High D-dimer results. The total says that there are excessive protein fibers in the blood.
A patient complains of urinating much too frequently. What is one symptom that may indicate this is occurring due to developing diabetes?
A. Blood pressure changes B. Hyperactivity C. Lethargy D. Weight loss - ANSWER D. Weight loss. Weight loss may be noted when a person urinates too often. A sudden amount of weight loss due to excess urination may be a sign of developing diabetes.
What does a bolus do? - ANSWER It provides immediate relief. A bolus administers drug within 30 minutes
What happens when the transportation of sodium is interfered with?
A. Effects of Parkinson's may be minimal B. Blood sugar levels will decline C. Blood pressure levels will decline D. The cerebrospinal fluid production is decreased - ANSWER D. There is a decrease in the production of cerebrospinal fluid when there is impaired transport of sodium with the use of Lasix or diuretics particularly those that inhibit cerebral edema.
Lanoxin (Digoxin) is needed for the treatment of: - ANSWER Atrial Fibrillation
Histotoxic hypoxia is caused by:
A. Medication for antihistamine B. Caffeine consumption C. Alcohol consumption D. All of the above - ANSWER C. Alcohol consumption. This event takes place when the cells cannot utilize O2 dur to the mitochondria being disrupted by the alcohol, which essentially is like cyanide poisoning
What should a patient with hemochromatosis avoid?
A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin A C. Calcium D. Potassium - ANSWER Vitamin C should be avoided. PT with this condition have more iron than necessary, and vitamin C helps increase the body's ability to absorb iron
Who are the following that should NOT get a flu vaccine?
A. A toddler B. A pregnant woman C. A 90 year old person D. A frequent smoker - ANSWER A. A toddler, the child must be at least 6 months old before getting a flu vaccine
What might develop as a result of thalassemia major?
B. Epinephrine should be administered C. Atropine should be administered D. Insert a breathing tube ANSWER D. The airway is always supported first
Which one of the following is correct about priapism?
A. It can arise after having sex B. It can involve the belly C. It is not due to sexual excitement D. It can lead to leakage - ANSWER C. It is not due to sexual excitement. It is due to blood disorders, or blood pressure disorders, or straining injuries to the groin
What can be ordered to decrease a patient's intracranial pressure?
A. Lasix B. Lanoxin C. Levothyroxine D. Lantus - ANSWER A. Lasix. The medication transfers fluid from the cranial area and back into circulation thus easing tension in the area
What should be given to a patient who is in tachycardia without a pulse?
A. Dopamine B. Lidocaine C. Magnesium D. Amiodarone - ANSWER A. Dopamine.
What should be done if a patient is unable to swallow an aspirin?
A. Crush the pill B. Double the dose later C. Insert the pill rectally D. Skip the aspirin dose - ANSWER C. Insert the pill rectally. Food should not be given with the aspirin, it can cause the patient to aspirate
Which of the following studies may be done on a patient with dysphagia, which may be stimulated by the esophagus?
A. An X-ray of the region B. A barium swallow C. An endoscopy analysis D. Any of the above may work - ANSWER B. A Barium swallow
A patient with GERD should be placed in what position in the bed?
A. Trendelenburg B. Reverse Trendelenburg C. Fowler's D. Semi- Fowler's - ANSWER B. Reverse Trendelenburg. The pt's airway is patent and better protected this way
A patient in a cervical collar should be placed in what bed position?
A. Fowler's B. Flat C. Trendelenburg
