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CHT CHS Certification - Practice Test Questions And Answers Latest Update 2024, Exams of Nursing

CHT CHS Certification - Practice Test Questions And Answers Latest Update 2024

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2024/2025

Available from 09/01/2024

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CHT CHS Certification - Practice Test
Questions And Answers Latest Update 2024
Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid
organ?
a. Spleen
b. Thymus
c. Lymph nodes
d. Liver
e. Tonsils - correct answers b. Thymus
Which of the following is not a component of the
reticuloendothelial cell system?
a. Microglial cells
b. Kupffer cells
c. Langerhans cells
d. Neutrophils
e. Monocytes - correct answers d. Neutrophils
Opsonization is a term to describe what?
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CHT CHS Certification - Practice Test

Questions And Answers Latest Update 2024

Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid organ? a. Spleen b. Thymus c. Lymph nodes d. Liver e. Tonsils - correct answers b. Thymus Which of the following is not a component of the reticuloendothelial cell system? a. Microglial cells b. Kupffer cells c. Langerhans cells d. Neutrophils e. Monocytes - correct answers d. Neutrophils Opsonization is a term to describe what?

a. Lysis of bacteria b. Coating of bacteria c. Ingestion of bacteria d. Killing of bacteria e. Phagocytosis - correct answers b. Coating of bacteria Which of the following does not describe a role of antibodies in host defense? a. They serve as a bridge between bacteria and phagocytes b. They lyse bacteria c. They enhance complement binding to the bacterial cell wall d. They prevent viruses from infecting cells e. They bind pathogens in mucus secretions - correct answers b. They lyse bacteria MHC Class I and II molecules differ in all of the following except a. Types of T cells they stimulate b. Types of cells they are expressed on c. Which chromosome they are located on

d. They interact with different subsets of T cells - correct answers c. They anchor in the middle instead of the end of the MHC molecule HLA-DM is primarily involved in the a. Activation of cytotoxic T cells b. Loading antigen onto HLA-DR molecules c. Preventing HLA-A molecules from folding prior to antigen binding d. Rejection of islet grafts e. Induction of diabetes mellitus - correct answers b. Loading antigen onto HLA-DR molecules The antigen-binding site of an antibody is comprised of which of the following? a. The variable region of the light and heavy chains b. The variable region of the light chain only c. The entire light chain d. The entire heavy chain e. The Fc portion of the immunoglobulin molecule - correct answers a. The variable region of the light and heavy chains

The immunoglobulin that binds the most complement is a. IgA b. IgD c. IgM d. IgG e. IgE - correct answers c. IgM The immunoglobulin responsible for activating mast cells in an allergic response is a. IgA b. IgD c. IgM d. IgG e. IgE - correct answers e. IgE The molecular interaction between an antibody and its corresponding antigen is mediated by all except which of the following? a. Hydrogen bonds b. Hydrophobic interactions c. Covalent bonds

Antibodies in the serum of a transplant recipient that react with HLA class I (HLA-A,B,C) antigens on the donor are particular dangerous in that they can induce... a. Hyperacute rejection b. Acute rejection c. Chronic rejection d. Type III hypersensitivity reactions e. Type I anaphylactic reactions - correct answers a. Hyperacute rejection Which of the following immunosuppressive drugs could be classified as an antiproliferative (anti-metabolite)? a. Cyclosporine b. FK c. Rapamycin d. Azathioprine e. Prednisolone (steroids) - correct answers d. Azathioprine, induce T cell apoptosis Recipients of organ transplants are generally required to take immunosuppressive drugs for ... a. 6 months

b. 2-5 years c. 10-15 years d. Until there is no evidence of rejection e. For the remainder of their lives - correct answers e. For the remainder of their lives If HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-DR alleles are compared between a parent and a child, how many would you typically expect to be matched? a. Impossible to predict without DNA testing b. None c. 3 d. 4 e. 6 - correct answers c. 3 IgM differs from IgG in all of the following except... a. Complement binding b. Avidity c. Molecular weight d. Affinity e. Kappa and lambda chains - correct answers e. Kappa and lambda chains

e. Cannot tell without knowing the composition of the panel - correct answers e. Cannot tell without knowing the composition of the panel A patient with an anti-HLA-A2 antibody would be most likely to have a positive T cell crossmatch with which of the following donors? a. A1, A3, B8, B35, DR4, DR b. A1, A24, B7, B8, DR1, DR c. A24, A68, B7, B64, DR1, DR d. A11, A29, B38, B62, DR4, DR e. A1, A3, B35, B55, DR1, DR4 - correct answers c. A24, A68, B7, B64, DR1, DR A patient with an anti-HLA-Bw4 antibody would be most likely to have a positive T cell crossmatch with which of the following donors? a. A1, A3, B8, B35, DR4, DR b. A1, A24, B7, B8, DR1, DR c. A24, A68, B7, B64, DR1, DR d. A11, A29, B38, B62, DR4, DR e. A1, A3, B35, B55, DR1, DR4 - correct answers d. A11, A29, B38, B62, DR4, DR

A patient with an anti-HLA-B8 CREG antibody might be expected to have a positive T cell crossmatches with all of the following donors except? a. A1, A3, B8, B35, DR4, DR b. A1, A24, B7, B8, DR1, DR c. A24, A68, B7, B64, DR1, DR d. A11, A29, B38, B62, DR4, DR e. A1, A3, B35, B55, DR1, DR4 - correct answers e. A1, A3, B35, B55, DR1, DR A positive AHG T cell crossmatch between an untransfused male recipient and non-beaded spleen cells from the donor is most likely due to a. Anti-Bw b. Macrophage contamination c. Auto antibodies d. CYNAP antibodies e. Anti-HLA-DQ antibodies - correct answers b. Macrophage contamination A positive B cell crossmatch does not usually lead to hyperacute renal allograft rejection because

a. 0. b. 0. c. 0. d. 0. e. 0.80 - correct answers c. 0. A positive MLC between a brother and sister who are both typed as HLA-DR4,- is most likely due to a. The siblings not being HLA-identical b. A meiotic crossover between HLA-DR4 alleles c. A proliferative response to HLA class I alleles d. High background in the MLC e. Somatic hypermutation - correct answers a. The siblings not being HLA-identical Failure of bone marrow engraftment could be due to all of the following except... a. Insufficient preparative chemotherapy to the patient b. A positive crossmatch c. A graft that has too few CD34+ cells d. ABO-mismatched donor cells

e. Not treating the patient with GM-CSF - correct answers d. ABO-mismatched donor cells The process of somatic hypermutation leads to ... a. Greater polymorphism of HLA class I b. Greater polymorphism of HLA class II c. Greater affinity of IgG molecules d. Inactivation of the T cell receptor e. Teenage mutant Ninja turtles - correct answers c. Greater affinity of IgG molecules An immunosuppressive agent that binds to the same molecular target as CsA is a. OKT b. Prograft (FK506) c. CellCept (Mycophenolate) d. Imuran (azathioprine) e. Prednisone (steroids) - correct answers b. Prograft (FK506) DR51, DR52 and DR53, respectively, are gene products of a DRA and

c. Is relatively constant, but many new alleles arise by translocation every year d. Varies with the haplotype e. Is the same for all primates - correct answers d. Varies with the haplotype The T cell receptor delivers an intracellular activation signal primarily via which accessory molecule? a. CD b. CD c. CD d. CD e. CD28 - correct answers a. CD The T cell receptor detects an MHC Class I molecule with the help of which accessory molecule? a. CD b. CD c. CD d. CD e. CD28 - correct answers d. CD

Acute rejection is thought to be mediated primarily by ... a. T cells b. B cells c. Platelets d. Antibodies e. Cytokines - correct answers a. T cells The T cell receptor detects an MHC Class II molecule with the help of which accessory molecule? a. CD b. CD c. CD d. CD e. CD28 - correct answers c. CD The phenomenon by which a patient's IgM alloantibodies become IgG alloantibodies several weeks later is known as... a. Somatic hypermutation b. Affinity maturation c. Isotype switching

The cytokine that plays a critical role in the up-regulation of HLA-DR molecules is a. IL- b. IL- c. IFN-y d. IFN-β e. GM-CSF - correct answers c. IFN-y A short DNA oligonucleotide used for PCR-SSP amplification is properly termed a a) Probe b) Amplicon c) Polymerase d) Primer e) Okazaki fragment - correct answers d) Primer SSP and SSOP methods assay certain portions of HLA alleles. The critical portions assayed are a) Introns b) Hypervariable regions c) Conserved regions

d) Promoter regions e) GC-rich regions - correct answers b) Hypervariable regions Molecular typing can be performed from cDNA molecules. cDNA molecules lack what feature which may require adaptation of methodology from genomic typing? a) Base methylation b) Stem/Loop structures c) Introns d) Hypervariable regions e) Exons - correct answers c) Introns The wipe (swipe) test assays for contamination of pre-PCR regions with... a) Amplified DNA b) Degraded DNA c) Taq inhibitors d) HLA proteins - correct answers a) Amplified DNA Which of the following pairs are unambiguously amino acid identical?