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BVMS1 MODULE 1 UPDATED ACTUAL EXAM 2025
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY RATED 5
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Discuss trends in human population distribution and the impact this has on supply and demand of livestock products. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The population is growing (currently 1.1 billion people in state of chronic hunger) so food security is crucial. Livestock contribute 40% of agricultural output and is one of the fastest growing elements of agriculture. Many factors affect farming patterns (land, climate, growing season, etc.) and can increase/decrease supply even if demand remains high. Describe the structure of European and UK agriculture and its relationship with the Common Agricultural Policy. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> UK farms are increasing in size and decreasing in number. Organic farms are more popular in Europe. GM products not grown in UK or EU. The Common Agricultural Policy was initiated post WWII to ensure food supply & security, stable markets and increased productivity. Recently reformed to include the Basic Payment Scheme which supplements farm incomes based on payment region (essentially good land, better LFA, non-LFA, poorer LFA) and environmental ("greening") schemes. Agriculture is key to rural economy and rural environment in the UK. Describe the global distribution of livestock. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Highest numbers of most livestock are in China. Approximately how long ago were farmed animals domesticated? **- CORRECT ANSWER
** 10,000 years ago Nutrition accounts for up to what percent of production costs in farm animals? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 80%
Swayback disease is caused by what mineral deficiency? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Copper. It is characterised by neurological signs including ataxia, tilted head and ill thrift. White muscle disease is caused by what mineral deficiency? **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Selenium and/or vitamin E deficiency; characterised by stiff gait and arched back; seen especially in calves and lambs overwintered on turnips, straw, or other vitamin E deficient feeds. What mineral is deficient if pining occurs? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Cobalt, which results in a vitamin B12 deficiency; characterised by reduced appetite, listlessness and death. What mineral is toxic to sheep? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Copper because their liver accumulates Cu much more readily than other species. What is gross energy (GE)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Total energy of food, i.e. heat of combustion What is digestible energy (DE)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Energy derived from digested food DE=GE-(energy lost as faeces) What is metabolisable energy (ME)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Energy derived after further ** Highest numbers of most livestock are in China. Approximately how long ago were farmed animals domesticated? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 10,000 years ago Nutrition accounts for up to what percent of production costs in farm animals? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 80% Swayback disease is caused by what mineral deficiency? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Copper. It is characterised by neurological signs including ataxia, tilted head and ill thrift. White muscle disease is caused by what mineral deficiency? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Selenium and/or vitamin E deficiency; characterised by stiff gait and arched back; seen especially in calves and lambs overwintered on turnips, straw, or other vitamin E deficient feeds. What mineral is deficient if pining occurs? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Cobalt, which results in a vitamin B12 deficiency; characterised by reduced appetite, listlessness and death. What mineral is toxic to sheep? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Copper because their liver accumulates Cu much more readily than other species. What is gross energy (GE)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Total energy of food, i.e. heat of combustion What is digestible energy (DE)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Energy derived from digested food DE=GE-(energy lost as faeces) What is metabolisable energy (ME)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Energy derived after further losses ME=DE-(energy lost as urine)-(energy lost as methane) What is net energy (NE)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Energy retained for 'useful' purposes (maintenance and production)
What is neutral detergent fibre (NDF)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Fibre insoluble in neutral detergent (residue); plant cell wall material (lignin, cellulose, hemicellulose) What is acid-detergent fibre (ADF)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Fibre insoluble in acid detergent (residue); cellulose and lignin What is active fibre? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Predicted availability of long fibre (>/= 3.2mm); "rumen raft" How is water soluble carbohydrate (WSC) calculated? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Fructan + simple sugars What is acid-detergent insoluble nitrogen (ADIN)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Fibre-bound indigestible protein; inversely related to digestibility What is dietary fibre (DF)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Lignin + (polysaccharides that can't be digested by endogenous enzymes); often used in human/other simple stomached spp. nutrition; difficult to determine in lab What are non-starch polysaccharides (NSP)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> NSP+lignin=major components of cell walls; soluble fraction (pectin, some hemicellulose); insoluble fraction (cellulose, majority hemicellulose) What is the difference between digestion and degradation? **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Digestion is the breakdown process of large insoluble molecules to simpler molecules that can then pass through mucous membrane of alimentary canal (mechanical, chemical and microbial). Degradation is essentially just microbial digestion that occurs in reticulo-rumen and large intestine (not a linear process).
In non-ruminant protein nutrition briefly describe what is meant by the term Biological Value (BV)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> It is a direct measure of the proportion of dietary protein utilised by the animal. It is a balance of N intake and N output taking into account endogenous fractions - endogenous N excreted in urine & metabolic faecal N excreted in faeces. How does fat deposition differ in domesticated animals and wild species? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Tends to be higher in domesticated animals. Animals for meat production will have more intramuscular fat and over the muscle in the subcutis, in contrast to wild species Which change, originally associated with the domestication of ruminants, has been reversed in modern breeding programs? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Smaller mature size How do prokaryotic and eukaryotic nuclei differ? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Prokaryotic cells have no membrane bound nucleus whereas eukaryotic cells do. Briefly describe ribosomes and their function. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Complex of proteins and rRNAs. Eukaryotic ribosomes consist of 2 subunits (40S and 60S). Some bound (ER), some free (cytosol). Site of protein synthesis Briefly describe the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and its function. **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Rough ER covered by ribosomes and involved in protein synthesis. Smooth ER not associated with ribosomes and involved with lipid metabolism. Briefly describe the function of the golgi apparatus. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Process proteins and directs them to plasma membrane or internal organelles. What is the function of mitochondria? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Harness ATP from the oxidation of food molecules (oxidative phosphorylation, electron transport, Krebs cycle)
Describe mitosis. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Process begins in interphase. Then moves to prophase where chromosome number is doubled. Then in prometaphase, nucleus dissolves and microtubules attach to centromeres. Then in metaphase, chromosomes align in the middle of the cell. In anaphase, the separated chromosomes are pulled apart. In telophase, microtubules disappear and cell division begins. Two daughter cells are formed each with beginning number of chromosomes in cytokinesis. What are the role of external signals in the regulation of the mammalian cell cycle? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> External signals are required for the cells to grow and divide. Growth factors bind to a cell receptor, the receptor sets of a signal cascade to nucleus, and then the target cell enters the S-phase and divides. What is the role of p53 gene in the regulation of the mammalian cell cycle? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> p53 is a tumour suppressor protein that plays a role in the G1 checkpoint. It acts to inhibit cell proliferation and tumour development if there is damage to DNA. It is often mutated (and has loss of function) in cancers. What are the roles of cyclin proteins and cyclin dependent kinases (Cdk) in the regulation of cell cycles? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Cyclin proteins are synthesised and degraded in different phases. Cdk activity occurs only when cyclin levels increase and leads to phosphorylation of target protein. this allows the protein to be activated rapidly (causes a conformational change) What is the role of retinoblastoma protein (pRb) in the G1-S transition? **- CORRECT ANSWER
** It is a tumour suppressor protein. Its phosphorylation state determines the progression to S phase in the cell cycle. If it's unphosphorylated, G1-S transition is blocked. If phosphorylated, G1-S progresses. Often mutated in cancers so the cell continually goes forward to the S phase. What is cellular senescence? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The period cells enter after living out their limited replicative lifespan. Once senescent, cells can never divide again.
Discuss the role of telomeres in limiting cell growth. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Telomeres are DNA protein complexes that 'cap' the ends of chromosomes and shorten as cell division continues. A short telomere signals the cell to stop dividing. Briefly describe apoptosis. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Apoptosis is programmed cell death. It is required for the elimination of cells with damaged DNA. Too much can lead to atrophy and too little can lead to immune mediated disease. Briefly describe necrosis. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Necrosis is an accidental form of cell death. The pathological response to injury (mechanical damage, exposure to toxins, hypoxia, ischemia) that causes an immune response. List the differences between natural and synthetic suture material. **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Natural
- Protein (so reactive)
- Inconsistent quality
- Silk (gold standard for handling)
- Usage declining Synthetic
- More inert
- Consistent quality
- Highest usage
- Ongoing product upgrades List the differences between monofilament and multifilament suture material. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Monofilament:
- Simplified structure reduces drag
What types of needles are there and when would you use them? **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Round-bodied: tissues inside the body Cutting: skin Describe chromic catgut. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> - Made from collagen (sheep submucosa/serosa)
- Multifilament twisted
- Destroyed by enzymes
- Intense reaction
- 33%- 7 - 10 days
- 66%- 28 days
- Natural absorbable
- Handles & knots well
- Breaks easily
- Unpredictable
- Can't use to make a surgeons knot Describe coated vicryl. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> - Braided
- Destroyed by hydrolysis
- Little reaction
- 35% - 14 days
- 60% - 21 days
- Synthetic absorbable
- General suture (handles well, knots easily)
- Dead space closure
- Ligature minor vessels only Describe monocryl. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> - Synthetic
- Absorbable
- Monofilament
- 75% - 14 days
- 100%- 21 days
- High initial tensile strength
- Bladder and bowel Describe PDS. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> - Monofilament
- Hydrolysis
- Little reaction
- 14% - 14 days
- 75%- 42 days (e.g. linea alba needs 3 months to regain 75% of strength)
- Synthetic
- Absorbable
- General suture (knots well, but bulky)
- No recoil, can be used as ligature Describe steel. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> - Rarely used for suturing
- Biologically inert
- Highest tensile strength
- Good knot security
- Poor handling characteristics
- Cannot withstand repeated bending
- Separated from thoracic cavity by diaphragm (cranial boundary)
- Pelvic inlet = caudal boundary What major systems are located in the abdominal cavity? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Digestive system, urinary system, female reproductive system abdominal wall allows expansion and aids in abdominal press Briefly explain what anatomical structures form the boundaries of the pelvic cavity. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> - Ventral to sacral region of vertebral column
- Surrounded by pelvis
- Perineum = muscles that form caudal boundary
- Pelvic inlet separates abdominal and pelvic cavities (no physical barrier) What major systems are located in the pelvic cavity? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Digestive system, urinary system, female reproductive system Perineum supports external openings of these systems What are the core components of Veterinary Public Health (VPH)? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Zoonoses prevention and control
- Food safety and increasingly food security
- Environmental protection
- Animals in society
- Liaison
- Other areas
Briefly describe the pathogenesis of anthrax. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Plasmid encoded virulence factors (capsule and toxin) - > Regulated by carbon dioxide and temperature - > Capsule (poly-d-glutamic acid) inhibits phagocytosis Toxin has 3 components: protective antigen (binds oedema factor and lethal factor); oedema factor increases cAMP and inhibits neutrophil function; lethal toxin (lethal factor and PA), macrophages release IL-1 and TNF--shock Ultimately leads to septicaemia-vascular permiability, haemorrhage, shock, and death How does antimicrobial therapy work? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Drugs used to treat bacterial, fungal, viral, and parasitic disease that work by selective toxicity. What are the 5 rules of body language? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. 30 second rule (people will make up their mind about you within 30 seconds of meeting you)
- Handshake (strong vs. weak)
- Maintain eye contact
- Consistent verbal and non-verbal cues
- Remove barriers to build rapport What steps should you take during a consultation? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Prepare and establish context
- Establish rapport with client and animal (identifying reasons for consultation)
- Gather information (no leading questions, no double questions, relevance!)
- Explanation and planning (provide appropriate amount/type of info, achieve shared understanding, appropriate shared decision making for plan)
- Summarise
- Have more than one double bond
- Important for membrane function
- Cis double bond not trans List the three volatile fatty acids. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Acetate, Propionate, Butyrate Which blood component is used to transport lipid from the liver to the tissues of the body? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Very low density lipoprotein Which blood component is used to transport lipid from the intestine to the tissues of the body? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Lipoprotein (chylomicrons) Which blood component is used to transport lipid from the tissues of the body to the liver? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> High density lipoprotein Which blood component is used to transport lipid from adipose tissue? **- CORRECT ANSWER
** Fatty acids bound to albumin Describe how neuronal communication systems are structured. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A variable is measured by a receptor which is then interpreted in an integration centre. This can then send an action signal to an effector cell to correct the variable (to bring back to a set point). All of these components make up a reflex. What is homeostasis? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The maintenance of a variable at a set level despite significant environmental change What is a reflex? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> An involuntary, unpremeditated, unlearned response; can be learned or unlearned (homeostasis)
Briefly describe how a signal from the endocrine system reaches its target cell. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Receptor cells send a blood borne message to a hormone secreting gland which then secretes a hormone which acts on its target cell. These are super effective for widespread responses (since there's blood everywhere), but can be slow. Briefly describe how a signal from the neural system reaches its target cell. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The receptor cell sends a nerve impulse to the central nervous system which then sends another nerve impulse to act on the target cell. These are much faster than endocrine signals (electrical impulses vs. hormones), but nerves don't run to every cell (so also more specific). Briefly describe how a signal from the neuro-endocrine system reaches its target cell. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The receptor cell sends a nerve impulse to the central nervous system which then secretes a hormone to the target cell. This uses the best parts of the endocrine and neural systems to achieve a response. What is a group of neural cell bodies located in the peripheral nervous system called? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Ganglia Where do somatic neurones run to? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Skeletal muscle (voluntary control) Where do autonomic neurones run to? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Muscle and endocrine tissue (involuntary control) Explain the functional significance of the different parts of a neurone. **- CORRECT ANSWER
** - Dendrites receive information
- Cell body contains organelles for most metabolic activity; integration of incoming information form dendrites so a response can be formed
- Axon makes contact with other cells to transmit information long distances
d)The impermeability of the cell membrane to Cl e)The presence of negatively charged proteins in the extracellular fluid **- CORRECT ANSWER
** c) The greater permeability of the cell membrane to K+ relative to Na+. Explain how an action potential is fired. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A stimulus acts on the cell which causes fast Na+ channels to open and there is an increased flow of Na+ into the cell. Membrane potential then becomes less negative and hits threshold (where movement of Na+ into the cell exceeds movement of K+ out of the cell). K+ channels open slowly (occurs during depolarisation and repolarisation). Na+ channels close at the peak. The membrane potential goes into hyperpolarisation as the K+ channels slowly close until the resting potential (-70mV) is reached again. Action potential is fired if threshold potential is met. Why is it more difficult to fire another action potential during the relative refractory period? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> There is a bigger difference to get to the threshold potential. Also, because the K+ channels are open, any influx of Na+ is immediately balanced by the movement of K+. Why can a new action potential not be generated during the absolute refractory period? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> The Na+ channels are open, so no further depolarisation can occur. How does the size of cellular response relate to the size of the stimulus? **- CORRECT ANSWER ** The larger the stimulus, the larger the response. The size of the stimulus is related to action potential frequency. A larger stimulus takes a graded potential much higher than threshold, so cells are brought to threshold quicker after each action potential and the frequency increases. What is the physiological means by which local anaesthetics work? **- CORRECT ANSWER ** Action potential formation and saltatory conduction rely on fast voltage gated Na+ channels. Local anaesthetics block these channels and thus block signal transmission to the CNS.
What is a graded potential and how does it differ from an action potential? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A graded potential is a change in the membrane potential that varies in size based on the size of a stimulus (can be hyperpolarising or depolarising). It is caused by the summation of the individual actions of the ligand-gated ion channels. They differ from action potentials in that they are not all-or-nothing responses. What is the physiological means by which Australasian funnel-web spider venom works? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> It contains atroctoxins which cause the Na+ channels to stay open, causing excessive neural activity and paralysis. What is the physiological means by which tetrodotoxins work? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> These are found in the skin and certain organs of Tetraodontidae (puffer fish) and it blocks the opening of Na+ channels. This blocks neural activity and leads to paralysis. What type of bonds join nucleotides together? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Phosphodiester bonds (T/F) DNA double helix runs in an anti-parallel direction. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> True. How is DNA packaged? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Into chromosomes Outline the steps involved in DNA replication. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Helicases unwind the parental double helix.
- Single-strand binding proteins stabilise the unwound parental DNA.
- The leading strand is synthesised continuously in the 5' to 3' direction by DNA polymerase.
- The lagging strand is synthesised discontinously. Primase synthesises a short RNA primer, which is extended by DNA polymerase to form an Okazaki fragment.
- After the RNA primer is replaced by DNA (by another DNA polymerase) DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragment to the growing strand.
