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BSN NSG 3313 Adult Health Nursing I – Cumulative Exam ) Questions And Correct Answers (Ve, Exams of Nursing

South CollegeNursing

BSN NSG 3313 Adult Health Nursing I – Cumulative Exam ) Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download PDF South College

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2024/2025

Available from 07/09/2025

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BSN NSG 3313 Adult Health Nursing I – Cumulative Exam )
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download PDF South College
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing
dyspnea. Which position is most appropriate to ease the client’s breathing?
• Supine
• Side-lying
• High Fowler’s
• Trendelenburg
High Fowler’s position facilitates maximum lung expansion and decreases
the work of breathing in clients with COPD.
2. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a client taking
furosemide?
• Hemoglobin
• White blood cell count
• Potassium
• Sodium
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, increasing the
risk of hypokalemia.
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Download BSN NSG 3313 Adult Health Nursing I – Cumulative Exam ) Questions And Correct Answers (Ve and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

BSN NSG 3313 Adult Health Nursing I – Cumulative Exam )

Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus

Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download PDF South College

  1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which position is most appropriate to ease the client’s breathing?
  • Supine
  • Side-lying
  • High Fowler’s
  • Trendelenburg High Fowler’s position facilitates maximum lung expansion and decreases the work of breathing in clients with COPD.
  1. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a client taking furosemide?
  • Hemoglobin
  • White blood cell count
  • Potassium
  • Sodium Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, increasing the risk of hypokalemia.
  1. A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which lab finding should the nurse expect?
  • Decreased lipase
  • Elevated amylase
  • Decreased bilirubin
  • Elevated hemoglobin Amylase and lipase are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic inflammation.
  1. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
  • ST depression
  • Peaked T waves
  • U waves
  • Prolonged QT interval Peaked T waves are a hallmark of hyperkalemia and may indicate the need for immediate intervention.
  1. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a client with a myocardial infarction?
  • Encourage fluid intake
  • Provide a high-protein diet
  • Administer oxygen
  • aPTT
  • Platelets aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin.
  1. The nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis. Which finding indicates portal hypertension?
  • Ascites
  • Jaundice
  • Bruising
  • Spider angiomas Ascites results from increased pressure in the portal vein system and is a key sign of portal hypertension. 10.A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes. What action is appropriate if the client is diaphoretic and anxious?
  • Administer insulin
  • Give 15g of glucose
  • Call the provider
  • Encourage rest These are signs of hypoglycemia; administering fast-acting carbohydrates is the immediate intervention. 11.A patient with a gastric ulcer complains of sudden severe abdominal pain and rigid abdomen. What should the nurse do first?
  • Give pain medication
  • Notify the provider
  • Administer antacids
  • Place the client flat Sudden pain and rigid abdomen suggest perforation—a surgical emergency requiring provider notification. 12.Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
  • Age
  • Family history
  • Smoking
  • Gender Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease. 13.A client receiving a blood transfusion develops hives and itching. What is the nurse’s priority action?
  • Slow the infusion
  • Stop the transfusion
  • Notify the lab
  • Administer acetaminophen These are signs of an allergic reaction; the transfusion must be stopped immediately.

17.A nurse notes the client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. What does this involve?

  • Full-thickness skin loss
  • Partial-thickness skin loss
  • Muscle exposure
  • Intact skin Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis. 18.Which intervention best prevents hospital-acquired pneumonia?
  • Encourage fluid intake
  • Promote early ambulation
  • Maintain NPO status
  • Use humidified oxygen Early ambulation promotes lung expansion and reduces pneumonia risk. 19.Which electrolyte imbalance is common in renal failure?
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypophosphatemia
  • Hyponatremia Kidneys fail to excrete potassium efficiently, resulting in hyperkalemia. 20.What finding should the nurse expect in a client with Cushing's syndrome?
  • Moon face
  • Bronze skin
  • Salt craving
  • Weight loss Cushing’s syndrome leads to fat redistribution, resulting in moon face and truncal obesity. 21.A nurse assesses an arteriovenous fistula. Which finding indicates patency?
  • Redness at site
  • Presence of bruit
  • Absence of pulse
  • Swelling A bruit indicates blood flow through the fistula and confirms patency. 22.Which priority action should a nurse take for a client post-thyroidectomy?
  • Offer water
  • Monitor airway
  • Elevate legs
  • Administer insulin Airway obstruction due to swelling or bleeding is a serious post-op risk. 23.A client with anemia reports fatigue. What is the physiological reason?
  • Infection
  • Decreased oxygen delivery
  • Iron overload
  • Bradycardia
  • Constipation Hyperthyroidism increases metabolism, often causing weight loss despite increased appetite. 27.A client with peritonitis is at risk for which complication?
  • Sepsis
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Stroke
  • Nephrotic syndrome Peritonitis can lead to systemic infection (sepsis), which is life-threatening if not treated. 28.What is the priority assessment for a client with a head injury?
  • Temperature
  • Level of consciousness
  • Pupillary size
  • Blood pressure Changes in level of consciousness can be the earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure. 29.Which food should be avoided by a client taking warfarin?
  • Apples
  • Spinach
  • Bananas
  • Oranges Spinach contains high levels of vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. 30.A client with liver cirrhosis has confusion and a musty breath odor. What is the likely cause?
  • Elevated ammonia levels
  • Dehydration
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hypertension In liver failure, ammonia accumulates and causes hepatic encephalopathy, leading to confusion and odor. 31.Which assessment is most concerning in a post-op abdominal surgery client?
  • Pain rated 6/
  • Dry mouth
  • Absent bowel sounds
  • Serosanguinous drainage Absent bowel sounds may indicate ileus or obstruction, which requires prompt evaluation. 32.Which is a common early symptom of hypoxia?
  • Bradycardia
  • Cyanosis
  • "Increase sodium for energy."
  • "Limit alcohol and exercise regularly."
  • "Avoid all forms of fat." Lifestyle modifications for hypertension include reducing alcohol, exercising, and limiting sodium—not potassium. 36.Which client behavior indicates correct use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)?
  • Exhales into inhaler
  • Inhales rapidly and deeply
  • Waits 1 minute between puffs
  • Does not shake the canister Waiting between puffs ensures the effectiveness of each dose and maximizes absorption. 37.A nurse cares for a client with a right-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which deficit is most likely?
  • Aphasia
  • Left-sided weakness
  • Right-sided neglect
  • Left hemianopsia A right-sided stroke typically results in left-sided motor deficits due to contralateral brain control. 38.Which intervention is most important for a client receiving chemotherapy?
  • Encourage deep breathing
  • Monitor white blood cell count
  • Offer low-fat diet
  • Maintain fluid restriction Chemotherapy suppresses bone marrow, increasing infection risk due to low WBCs. 39.What finding indicates a complication in a client with a chest tube?
  • Intermittent bubbling
  • Drainage of 50 mL/hour
  • Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
  • Fluctuation with breathing Continuous bubbling suggests an air leak in the system and must be reported. 40.Which client is at highest risk for a pulmonary embolism?
  • 28 - year-old with asthma
  • 40 - year-old on oral contraceptives
  • 36 - year-old marathon runner
  • 68 - year-old post-hip surgery Postoperative clients, especially those with orthopedic surgeries, are at high risk for emboli. 41.A client with GERD asks how to reduce symptoms. What should the nurse recommend?
  • Implement droplet precautions
  • Assess pain
  • Apply cooling blanket Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious; droplet precautions protect others. 45.What assessment finding supports a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease?
  • Hyperactivity
  • Shuffling gait
  • Seizures
  • Muscle hypertrophy A hallmark sign of Parkinson’s is a shuffling gait due to rigidity and bradykinesia. 46.Which lab value supports a diagnosis of infection?
  • Hematocrit 45%
  • Platelet 200,
  • WBC 14,
  • Hemoglobin 13 g/dL An elevated WBC count indicates the body’s immune response to infection. 47.What is an appropriate intervention for a client with peripheral artery disease?
  • Encourage prolonged standing
  • Promote walking until pain begins
  • Elevate legs above heart
  • Apply warm packs Walking improves circulation and helps form collateral vessels, even if it induces mild claudication. 48.A nurse prepares to administer insulin lispro. When should the nurse plan the client’s meal?
  • Within 15 minutes
  • 1 hour later
  • After blood glucose check
  • When hungry Lispro is rapid-acting and should be followed by food within 15 minutes to prevent hypoglycemia. 49.Which instruction should be given to a client with iron-deficiency anemia?
  • Avoid citrus with supplements
  • Take iron with dairy
  • Take iron on an empty stomach with vitamin C
  • Crush tablets before use Vitamin C enhances absorption, and iron is best absorbed on an empty stomach. 50.Which action should the nurse take for a client with neutropenia?
  • Apply cold compresses
  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia
  • Seizures Removing fluid can cause a drop in blood pressure due to fluid shift. 54.Which client should not receive a beta-blocker?
  • Glaucoma
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Asthma
  • Hypertension Beta-blockers can cause bronchoconstriction and worsen asthma. 55.Which sign indicates a possible bowel obstruction?
  • High-pitched bowel sounds
  • Soft abdomen
  • Increased flatus
  • Dark tarry stool High-pitched or "tinkling" bowel sounds are characteristic of mechanical obstruction. 56.A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) develops confusion. Which lab value should be checked?
  • Calcium
  • Potassium
  • Glucose
  • Hemoglobin TPN can cause hyperglycemia, which may lead to confusion and neurologic symptoms. 57.What is the initial treatment for ventricular fibrillation?
  • Epinephrine
  • Defibrillation
  • Chest compressions
  • Oxygen Defibrillation is the only effective treatment to restore a normal rhythm in VF. 58.Which is a priority intervention for a burn client in the emergent phase?
  • Apply lotion
  • Provide antibiotics
  • Maintain airway and fluid resuscitation
  • Provide a high-calorie diet Airway and fluid resuscitation are critical in the initial phase of burn management. 59.A nurse notes a sudden drop in urinary output in a post-op client. What is the best initial action?
  • Notify provider
  • Increase IV fluids