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Blood Transfusion Medicine Objective Questions with Answers, Exams of Medicine

Blood Transfusion Medicine Blood Transfusion Medicine Objective Questions with Answers

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/18/2025

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Blood Transfusion Medicine Objective Questions
with Answers
300+ TOP Transfusion Medicine MCQs and Answers
300+ TOP Transfusion Medicine
MCQs and Answers
Transfusion Medicine Multiple Choice Q uestions
1. First blood bank in India was established at
A.
Delhi
B.
Calcutta
C.
Pune
D.
Bombay
Answer:
B
2.
AIDS cases are reported rst in the year
A.
1960
B.
1971
C.
1981
D.
1980
Answer:
C
3.
World’s rst hospital blood bank at cook county
hospital, Chicago was began by
A.
James Blundell
B.
Fantus
C.
Mollison
D.
Ottenberg
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Download Blood Transfusion Medicine Objective Questions with Answers and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!

Blood Transfusion Medicine Objective Questions

with Answers

300+ TOP Transfusion Medicine MCQs and Answers

300+ TOP Transfusion Medicine

MCQs and Answers

Transfusion Medicine Multiple Choice Q uestions

  1. First blood bank in India was established at

A. Delhi B. Calcutta C. Pune D. Bombay

Answer: B

  1. AIDS cases are reported fi rst in the year

A. 1960 B. 1971 C. 1981 D. 1980

Answer: C

  1. World’s fi rst hospital blood bank at cook county hospital, Chicago was began by

A. James Blundell B. Fantus C. Mollison D. Ottenberg

Answer: B

  1. Professional Blood donation banned in India since

A. January 1, 1999 B. January 1, 1997 C. January 1, 1998 D. January 1, 1996

Answer: C

  1. Government of India made test for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) mandatory by notifying in drugs and cosmetic act on.

A. 1991 B. 1985 C. 1989 D. 1990

Answer: C

  1. License of Blood storage centre is valid for

A. 3 years B. 2 years C. 5 years D. 1 year

Answer: B

  1. National voluntary blood donation day October 1st is in memory of

A. Dr. J.G. Jolly B. Karl Landsteiner C. William Harvey D. Wiener Klinische

Answer: A

D. 4q28-q

A. 10 years B. 25 years C. 5 years D. One year

Answer: A

  1. Biochemical composition of RBC membrane is

A. 52% protein, 40% lipid and 8% carbohydrate B. 40% protein, 52% lipid and 8% carbohydrate C. 52% carbohydrate, 40% lipid and 8% protein D. None of the above

Answer: A

  1. Minimum hemoglobin value required to accept an adult as a blood donor is

A. 12 gm/dl B. 12.5 gm/dl C. 13 gm/dl D. 11.5 gm/dl

Answer: B

  1. Expiry date of irradiated platelet is

A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 7 days D. No change from original expiration date

Answer: D

  1. ABO gene locus is in chromosome

A. 9q34. B. 19p13. C. 6p24.

Answer: A

  1. Latest included blood group is ISBT is

A. LAN B. VEL C. AUG D. FORS

Answer: C

  1. Compatible IV solution that can be administered through the same transfusion gel is.

A. Ringer lactate B. 20% dextrose C. Plasmalyte A D. 10% dextrose

Answer: C

  1. Which of the following antibodies is most likely to be naturally occurring

A. Anti K B. Anti M C. Anti e D. Anti

JK^a

Answer: B

  1. Of the following a non carbohydrate antigen is

A. H B. Lewis C. I D. Rh

Answer: D

B. Secretory status

A. Burns B. Shock C. Cachexia D. Plasmapheresis

Answer: C

  1. Blood group system related to McLeod syndrome is

A. Kell B. Kidd C. Duffy D. Lewis

Answer: A

  1. Strategies for augmenting cell dose in umbilical cord stem cell transplantation include all except

A. Exvivo expansion of umbilical cord blood stem and progenitor cells B. Intra bone marrow injection C. Thyroid hormone treatment D. Multiple unit umbilical cord blood transplantation

Answer: C

  1. Percentage of red cell suspension used in column agglutination technique is

A. 1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 40%

Answer: A

  1. ‘Witebsky’ test is used for

A. Irregular antibody detection

D. Wastage rate

C. Compatibility test D. Transfusion reactions

Answer: B

  1. Elution method good for eluting IgG antibody

A. Heat elution B. Glycine EDTA elution C. Both (1) and (2) D. None of the above

Answer: B

  1. Colour of the label used for autologous transfusions units

A. Pink B. Orange C. Green D. Blue

Answer: C

  1. A donor experiences facial muscle twitch during platelet pheresis, what should be done?

A. Detach ACD line B. Decrease return rate C. Add saline to the line D. Stop the procedure

Answer: B

  1. Quality indicator mandated for accredited blood banks to monitor and report every 6 months

A. Donor deferral rate B. Donor reaction rate C. Percentage of components prepared

  1. Maximum volume of blood collected from a blood donor should not exceed

A. 10.5 ml/kg body wt B. 11 ml/kg body wt C. 12.5 ml/kg body wt D. 12 ml/kg body wt

Answer: A

  1. Minimum area required to set up an Apheresis room

A. 50 sq.m B. 10 sq.m C. 25 sq.m D. 100 sq.m

Answer: B

  1. Indication for red cell exchange in malaria is

A. Parasitemia more than 30% in the absence of clinical complications B. Pregnant woman with malaria C. Parasitemia more than 10% with response to treatment D. Parasitemia more than 10% in the absence of clinical complications

Answer: A

  1. Auto antibody specificity in PCH patients is

A. I B. i C. P D. p^k

Answer: C

  1. Source of Erythropoeitin

D. Mixed field reaction

A. Renal interstitial fibroblasts B. Renal tubular epithelial cells C. Peri sinusoidal cells in liver D. All of the above

Answer: D

  1. Antibody in renal patients undergoing dialysis with formaldehyde sterilized machine

A. Anti M B. Anti N C. Anti P D. Anti S

Answer: B

  1. A positive direct coombs test can be due to

A. Auto antibodies to intrinsic red cell antigen B. Allo antibody against transfused red cell antigen C. Drug induced antibodies D. All of the above

Answer: D

  1. Sulf hydryl reagents are all except

A. DAT B. DTT C. 2 ME D. AET

Answer: A

  1. Kymriah is.

A. Drug used in ALL B. Blood substitute C. Reagent

A. Syngenic transplant B. Xenogenic transplant C. Allogenic transplant D. Autologous transplant

Answer: B

  1. 5% Albumen as a plasma volume expander has a half life of

A. One day B. 12 hrs C. 16 hrs D. 8 hrs

Answer: C

  1. Granulocyte components to be transfused within hrs after collection.

A. 8 hrs B. 24 hrs C. 48 hrs D. 6 hrs

Answer: B

  1. An ideal blood substitute have the following characteristic except

A. Increased availability B. Long shelf life C. Universal compatibility D. Infectious chance as blood products

Answer: D

  1. Blood warmer use is not indicated in

A. Neonatal exchange transfusion B. Patients with cold aggulutinins

D. O blood group

C. Rapid transfusion through central venous catheter D. Rapid transfusion in children

Answer: C

  1. “Leap frog” technique relate to the context of

A. Apheresis plasma collection B. Autologous transfusion C. Irradiation of blood products D. Pathogen inactivation of blood products

Answer: B

  1. Hyper coagulable state is associated with all except

A. Antithromobin deficiency B. Increased protein S C. Factor V Leiden mutation D. F XII deficiency

Answer: B

  1. Post haematopoietic stem cell transplant prophylaxis is given to combat

A. Herpes simplex virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Epstein Barr virus D. All of the above

Answer: D

  1. During preparative regimen in a bidirectional incompatible bone marrow transplant following blood group plasma can only be transfused

A. AB blood group B. Donor blood group C. Recipient blood group

  1. All are clinical features of iron overload

A. Heart failure B. Diabetes C. Hyperthyroidism D. Liver failure

Answer: C

  1. Which of the following blood group gene is located in chromosome I?

A. Kell B. Kidd C. Duffy D. Lutheran

Answer: C

  1. Maximum age for a first time blood donor

A. 50 yrs B. 60 yrs C. 40 yrs D. 45 yrs

Answer: B

  1. Patient with body surface area of 2 m^2 is transfused with 4 × 10″ platelet, initial platelet count of 5000/μl and post transfusion count 25000/μl. What would be the corrected count increment?

A. 5000/μl B. 10,000/μl C. 20,000/μl D. 8000/μl

Answer: B

  1. Most important antibody causing TRALI?

D. 16 years

A. HNA-3a B. HNA-2a C. HNA-1a D. None of the above

Answer: A

  1. Routine premedication to transfusion recipient is

A. Advised B. Not advised C. Optional D. None of the above

Answer: B

  1. Lethal triad of massive transfusion

A. Anemia, coagulopathy and hypothermia B. Coagulopathy, hypothermia, acidosis C. Hypothermia, acidosis, anemia D. Anemia, coagulopathy, acidosis

Answer: B

  1. Focus of oxygen sensor in foetus is

A. Kidney B. Liver C. Carotid sinus D. Spleen

Answer: B

  1. Approximately at age children attain the adult value of PT, aPTT and INR

A. 6 years B. 10 years C. 8 years

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  1. This reagent is not used to enhance antigen antibody reaction

A. DTT B. Polybrene C. PEG D. Ficin

Answer: A

  1. Refrigerated whole blood reduces the transmissions of

A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Syphilis

Answer: D

  1. Blood group antigen that is not enlisted in the routine antibody identification panel is

A. M

B. I

C. Le^a D. JK^a

Answer: B

8o. In large volume neonatal transfusions nephrotoxicity is due to the metabolite

A. Sodium metaphosphate B. Adenosine dioxamine C. 1, 4-dioxy chloroquine D. 2, 8-dioxy adenine

Answer: D

Transfusion Medicine Objective Questions with Answers Pdf