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Cardiology Exam Questions and Answers 2025/2026: A Comprehensive Review, Exams of Nursing

City University of New York (CUNY) - Hostos Community CollegeNursing

A series of multiple-choice questions and answers related to cardiology, specifically focusing on the treatment of angina pectoris, myocardial infarction, and various cardiac rhythms. It covers topics such as ecg changes, therapeutic goals in cardiogenic shock, thrombolytic administration, pulmonary artery catheter positioning, and the use of medications like nipride, dobutamine, and digoxin. The questions also address nursing actions post-ami, interpretation of arterial lines and central venous pressure, and interventions for conditions like atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, and cardiac tamponade. Additionally, it includes questions on ventilator management, chest tube drainage, and blood gas analysis, providing a comprehensive review of critical care cardiology concepts. This material is useful for medical students, nursing students, and healthcare professionals seeking to reinforce their knowledge of cardiac care and emergency interventions. (498 characters)

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/28/2025

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BKAT 9R EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026
WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS
Initial measure for the treatment of angina pectoris does not include which response below?
1. resting
2. beta blockers
3. oxygen
4. nitroglycerine - answer-beta blockers
The classical ECG change with muscle injury in acute myocardial infarction is:
1. presence of a Q wave
2. ST segment elevation
3. myocardial electrical irritability
4. a peaked T wave - answer-ST segment elevation
Elevated cardiac iso-enzyme generally does not occur in which response below?
1. Closed chest injury
2. pericarditis
3. congestive heart failure
4. cardiac surgery - answer-Congestive heart failure
The major therapeutic goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is to:
1. Increase the afterload
2. Improve renal perfusion
3. Increase cardiac output
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Download Cardiology Exam Questions and Answers 2025/2026: A Comprehensive Review and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

BKAT 9R EXAM NEWEST 202 5/

WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

ANSWERS

Initial measure for the treatment of angina pectoris does not include which response below?

  1. resting
  2. beta blockers
  3. oxygen
  4. nitroglycerine - answer-beta blockers The classical ECG change with muscle injury in acute myocardial infarction is:
  5. presence of a Q wave
  6. ST segment elevation
  7. myocardial electrical irritability
  8. a peaked T wave - answer-ST segment elevation Elevated cardiac iso-enzyme generally does not occur in which response below?
  9. Closed chest injury
  10. pericarditis
  11. congestive heart failure
  12. cardiac surgery - answer-Congestive heart failure The major therapeutic goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is to:
  13. Increase the afterload
  14. Improve renal perfusion
  15. Increase cardiac output
  1. Decrease fluid volume - answer-Increase cardiac output You receive orders to starte Nipride and Dobutamine in your patient with end-stage cardiomyopathy. How will this treatment regimen affect cardiac output?
  2. Increase preload and reduces afterload
  3. Reduces preload and increases afterload
  4. Reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility
  5. Reduces preload and improves contractility - answer-Reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility In dealing with a depressed patient during the first days post AMI the most appropriate nursing action would be:
  6. Encourage to patient to ventilate his/her concerns
  7. Provide for privacy so the patient can rest
  8. Limit visits only to family members
  9. Provide a quiet environment for the patient - answer-Encourage the patient to ventilate his/her concerns Mr. Seamore is receiving thrombolytics (TPA) 3 hours after an AMI. Which of the following would most likely require discontinuing the infusion?
  10. PVCs
  11. Bleeding gums
  12. Oozing at the insertion site
  13. Change in mental status - answer-Change in mental status The following monitor would indicate that the pulmonary artery (Swan Ganz) catheter is in which position?
  14. Superior vena cava
  15. Right ventricle
  16. Pulmonary artery
  17. Pulmonary artery occlusion (wedge) - answer-Pulmonary artery occlusion (wedge)
  1. aorta
  2. left ventricle
  3. right atrium
  4. vena cava - answer-left ventricle The normal pulmonary artery pressure is:
  5. (10-20)/(0-4) mean 5 - 10
  6. (21-30)/(5-15) mean 11 - 20
  7. (31-35)/(16-20) mean 21 - 30
  8. (36-45)/(21-23) mean 31 - 33 - answer- 11 - 2 How many mm Hg is the normal PAOP
  9. 1 - 3
  10. 6 - 12
  11. 15 - 20
  12. 21 - 26 - answer- 6 - 12 An elevated PAOP may indicate:
  13. Hypovolemia
  14. Peripheral vasodilation
  15. systemic hypotension
  16. left ventricular failure - answer-left ventricular failure Mr. Adams, a 68 yo patient, complains of feeling "a little funny in his chest." His ECG shows atrial fibrillation/flutter. Which of the following medications could be used to treat his cardiac rhythm?
  17. Digoxin
  18. Nifedipine
  19. Diltiazem
  20. Adenosine - answer-Diltiazem

A QRS complex wider than 0.12 seconds most likely indicates:

  1. Normal sinus node conduction
  2. Bundle branch block
  3. Second degree heart block
  4. myocardial infarction - answer-bundle branch block The following rhythm represents: - answer-First degree HB Special care should be exercised when administering IV dopamine because:
  5. Infiltration leads to tissue necrosis
  6. High doses may lead to a profound bradycardia
  7. Precipitation can occur when used in a dextrose IV solution
  8. even low doses decrease renal perfusion - answer-Infiltration leads to tissue necrosis The following strip is: - answer-Aflutter A strong ventricular stimulus is potentially dangerous when it lands on the:
  9. U wave
  10. P wave
  11. T wave
  12. QRS complex - answer-T wave The rhythm strip below shows: - answer-VTach An indication for use of an external cardiac pacemaker includes:
  13. paroxysmal atria tachycardia
  14. Ventricular fibrillation
  15. Wenckebach (Mobitz Block Type 1)

The treatment in an emergency situation for complete heart block is:

  1. a trial of atropine
  2. preparing for transcutaneous pacing
  3. doing cardiac compressions
  4. using digoxin - answer-Preparing for transcutaneous pacing Your patient has atrial flutter with a ventricular response of 150 beats per minute. Therapy for this rhythm includes:
  5. Digoxin, a temporary pacemaker, potassium chloride
  6. Lidocaine, sodium bicarb, cardioversion
  7. Amiodarone, cardizem, cardioversion
  8. Isordil, nitropaste, pronestyl - answer-Amiodarone, cardizem, cardioversion Signs of cardiac tamponade do not include which response below?
  9. distended neck veins
  10. pulsus paradoxus
  11. decreased systolic pressure
  12. bradycardia - answer-bradycardia In the patient with ventricular fibrillation, the correct energy setting for the first defibrillation when using a biphasic defibrillator is how many joules?
  13. 240
  14. 360
  15. 150
  16. 80 - answer- 150 A patient becomes apneic and pulseless. The monitor shows asystole. The drug that would most likely be used initially is:
  17. verapamil
  18. atropine
  1. epinephrine
  2. amiodarone - answer-Epinephrine The antidote for heparin is:
  3. Protamine sulfate
  4. Narcan
  5. Glucagone hydrochloride
  6. vitamin K - answer-Protamine sulfate The most important step in preventing central venous catheter related sepsis is:
  7. Use of a transparent membrane dressing
  8. Scrubbing access ports with alcohol
  9. using antibiotic ointment under the dressing
  10. thorough hand washing - answer-Thorough hand washing An excessive amount of chest tube drainage in the first few hours following thoracic surgery is how many ml's per hour?
  11. 150
  12. 75
  13. 50
  14. 30 - answer- 150 A routine check of your patient's blood gas values show a pH of 7.40, pO2 of 98 mm Hg, pCO2 of 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 25 mEq. These results reflect:
  15. metabolic acidosis
  16. metabolic alkalosis
  17. normal values
  18. respiratory compensation - answer-normal values
  1. notify the physician
  2. check the functioning of the cuff - answer-check the functioning of the cuff The high pressure alarm on a volume respirator will not be triggered by which response below?
  3. biting on the tube
  4. pulmonary edema
  5. leaking cuff
  6. decreased lung compliance - answer-leaking cuff The most important reason for diminishing breath sounds in a motor vehicle crash victim with closed chest trauma is:
  7. chest pain when breathing normally
  8. a pulmonary bleed
  9. development of a pneumothorax
  10. cervical spinal-cord injury - answer-Development of a pneumothorax A moderately burned trauma patient is admitted to your unit. The most important treatment related to the burns during the first 24 hours after injury is:
  11. fluid replacement
  12. accurate administration of antibiotics
  13. pain relief measures
  14. early wound cultures - answer-fluid replacement Your trauma patient, who is 4 days post fracture of the right femur, suddenly develops shortness of breath. The most likely cause is:
  15. Fat embolus
  16. Pneumonia
  17. Pleural effusion
  18. Pulmonary edema - answer-Fat embolism

To help prevent ventilator acquired pneumonia (VAP), the most important nursing action would be to:

  1. keeping FIO2 at 60%
  2. changing the ventilator tubing qshift
  3. careful hand-washing and use of gloves when suctioning
  4. treat low peak-inspiratory pressures - answer-Careful hand-washing and use of gloves when suctioning The most important nursing activity for a patient admitted with the diagnosis of cervical spinal cord injury is:
  5. keeping the patient flat
  6. immobilizing the head
  7. noting change in feeling extremities
  8. doing hourly neuro checks - answer-Immobilizing the head In a patient with cervical spine injury, the most important observations the nurse makes concerns which of the following physiological parameters?
  9. heart rate
  10. respirations
  11. urinary output
  12. pupillary response to light - answer-respirations The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure generally involves changes in:
  13. response to pain
  14. level of consciousness
  15. equality of pupillary reactions
  16. respiratory rate - answer-level of consciousness
  17. Deepening intracranial pressure is characterized by:
  18. tachycardia
  19. pinpoint pupils
  1. Hyperactivity, and diaphoresis and absence of urine ketones
  2. Dilated pupils, and flushed and warm skin
  3. Fruity breath, and deep and rapid breathing - answer-Fruity breath, and deep and rapid breathing Impending insulin shock (hypoglycemia) should be suspected when the diabetic patient complains of or manifests:
  4. Decreased skin turgor, abdominal pain, restlessness
  5. Flushed skin, tachycardia, Kussmal breathing
  6. Thirst, hypotension, fruity odor to the breath
  7. Weakness, headache, diaphoresis - answer-Weakness, headache, diaphoresis Measures that would be taken to treat a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis coma would not include which response below?
  8. Dextrose 50% IV infusion
  9. Insulin IV drip
  10. Potassium replacements
  11. IV fluid administration - answer-Dextrose 50% IV infusion Patients with diabetes mellitus who are acutely ill generally require a:
  12. higher dose of insulin
  13. restricted caloric intake
  14. decrease in fluid intake
  15. lower dose of insulin - answer-Higher dose of insulin The psychophysiologic stress response from acute illness and being in an ICU can result in decreased:
  16. Heart rate
  17. Alertness
  18. Systolic blood pressure
  19. Urine output - answer-Urine output

Which of the following types of insulin when given sub-q will have a peak action within 2 to 4 hours?

  1. Hummulin Lente
  2. NPH
  3. Lantus (glargine)
  4. Regular - answer-Regular An unconscious trauma patient who was just admitted to the ICU is a diabetic who received his usual dose of sub-q NPH insulin at 7 AM. In how many hours after administration might you expect an insulin reaction to occur?
  5. 1 - 2
  6. 3 - 4
  7. 8 - 14
  8. 18 - 24 - answer- 8 - 14 A dangerous effect of rapidly re-warming a hypothermic patient is:
  9. bradycardia
  10. vasodilation and hypotension
  11. seizure activity
  12. sudden rise in blood pressure - answer-vasodilation and hypotension Mrs.Smith, who is post-operative craniotomy patient has a fasting blood sugar of 100mg, complains of extreme thirst, and has a urine greater than 1,000 ml's over two hours. You should suspect:
  13. Increasing intracranial pressure
  14. Overproduction of ADH
  15. Acute adrenal insufficiency
  16. Diabetes insipidus - answer-Diabetes Insipidus Mrs. Reece, a 64 yo woman with acute renal failure and oliguria, was admitted with congestive heart failure. Which of the following tests is abnormal?
  1. No protein, high potassium, high sodium
  2. Restricted protein, low potassium, low sodium - answer-Restricted protein, low potassium, low sodium Sudden development of dyspnea and sinus tachycardia in an acute renal failure patient would most likely indicate which of the following?
  3. Hyperkalemia
  4. Pulmonary embolism
  5. Fluid overload
  6. Infection - answer-Fluid overload ECG changes commonly seen in hyperkalemia are:
  7. narrow QRS, inverted T wave
  8. narrow QRS, high P wave
  9. wide QRS, inverted T wave
  10. wide QRS, tall peaked T wave - answer-Wide QRS, tall peaked T wave When feeding a patient using continuous tube feedings, the most important intervention in preventing aspiration is to:
  11. Keep the head of the bed elevated
  12. Aspirate stomach contents Q4-6h for residual
  13. check the position of the tube feeding each shift
  14. turn the patient frequently - answer-keep the head of the bed elevated Low intermittent suction of gastric contents is not generally used in which response below?
  15. to decompress abdominal distention
  16. to prevent aspiration
  17. when bowel sounds are absent
  18. to control bleeding - answer-To control bleeding

The safe placement of a nasogastric tube in an unconscious patient can be best assessed by:

  1. instilling 30ml of normal saline through the tube
  2. aspirating gastric content
  3. checking the pH of the gastric aspirate
  4. obtaining radiographic confirmation - answer-obtaining radiographic confirmation While caring for a day-two post-operative exploratory laparotomy patient, you notice "coffeground" material coming from her nasogastric tube. You should:
  5. know this is a normal finding
  6. irrigate the tube right aware
  7. have the drainage tested for blood
  8. listen for overactive bowel sounds - answer-have the drainage tested for blood Your patient, who is receiving a blood transfusion, has a sudden increase in body temperature. Your first response is to:
  9. take the blood pressure
  10. check the blood type of the patient
  11. quickly observe for a rash
  12. stop the transfusion - answer-stop the transfusion In a symptomatic sinus bradycardia, which of the following could be used to increase the heart rate
  13. Propanolol
  14. Digoxin
  15. Atropine
  16. Verapamil - answer-Atropine Which of the following drugs will crystallize when given IV with D5S?
  17. Avelox
  18. fosphenytoin

Examples of spiritual care for a seriously ill, conscious patient does not generally include which response below?

  1. staying with or being with the patient
  2. listening to the patient's concerns
  3. telling the patient that everything is going to be all right
  4. calling for a clergyman to visit the patient - answer-Telling the patient that everything is going to be alright