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BIOLOGY 1201 Practice Final 2014 with answers Sectional Exam Chapters 11, 18, 19, 39, 45, and 48. Each question is worth 2 points. [This will have 50 questions.] Chapter 18
- In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following? A) turn off translation of their mRNA B) alter the level of production of various enzymes C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes D) inactivate their mRNA molecules E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins
- Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator? A) ubiquitin B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor
- In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, an activator protein (e.g., CRP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What helps activate activator protein? A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor E) decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor 46 ) In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around? A) polymerase molecules B) ribosomes C) mRNA D) histones E) nucleolus protein
- Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? A) repressors B) ATP C) protein-based hormones
D) elements E) tRNA
- Exons from pre-mRNA can be spliced in alternative orders to A) produce proteins with different functions B) produce mRNA that lasts longer C) be transcribed back into DNA to make new genes D) repair mutations
- Hemoglobin mRNAs last a long time in the cytoplasm. Why is this? A) To allow ribosomes to attach to them. B) To allow for the translation of more polypeptides C) To speed up the rate of translation D) To enhance degradation of shorter-lived mRNAs
- As soon as translation is completed, all polypeptides immediately become functioning proteins. A) True B) False Chapter 19
- Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses? A) metabolism B) ribosomes C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid D) cell division E) independent existence 2 ) Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle? A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced. B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome. C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host. D) A large number of phages are released at a time. E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations. 3 ) Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis? A) lytic phages B) proviruses C) viroids D) bacteriophages E) retroviruses
8 ) Emerging viruses arise by… A) mutation of existing viruses. B) the spread of existing viruses to new host species. C) the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species. D) A, B, and C E) none of these. 9 ) To cause a human pandemic, the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to… A) spread to primates such as chimpanzees. B) develop into a virus with a different host range. C) spread widely among humans D) arise independently in chickens in North and South America. E) become much less pathogenic. 10 ) RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses. B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome. C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins. D) these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes. E) these enzymes cannot be made in host cells. Chapter 11 11 ) Using the yeast signal transduction pathways, both types of mating cells release the mating factors. These factors bind to specific receptors on the correct cells, A) which induce changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion. B) which produce more of the a factor in a positive feedback. C) then one cell nucleus binds the mating factors and produces a new nucleus in the opposite cell. D) stimulating cell membrane disintegration, releasing the mating factors that lead to new yeast cells. E) which in turn releases a growth factor that stimulates mitosis in both cells. 12 ) What is most likely to happen to an animal's target cells that lack receptors for local regulators? A) They might compensate by receiving nutrients via a factor. B) They could develop normally in response to neurotransmitters instead. C) They could divide but never reach full size. D) They would not be able to respond to signals from nearby cells. E) Hormones would not be able to interact with target cells. 13 ) When a neuron responds to a particular neurotransmitter by opening gated ion channels, the neurotransmitter is serving as which part of the signal pathway? A) receptor B) relay molecule C) transducer D) signal molecule
E) endocrine molecule 14 ) Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to A) the active site of an enzyme that binds to a specific substrate. B) tRNA specifying which amino acids are in a polypeptide. C) a metabolic pathway operating within a specific organelle. D) an enzyme having an optimum pH and temperature for activity. E) an antibody in the immune system. 15 ) Which of the following is true for the signaling system in an animal cell that lacks the ability to produce GTP? A) It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. B) It could activate only the epinephrine system. C) It would be able to carry out reception and transduction but would not be able to respond to a signal. D) It would use ATP instead of GTP to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. E) It would employ a transduction pathway directly from an external messenger. 16 ) Testosterone functions inside a cell by A) acting as a signal receptor that activates tyrosine kinases. B) binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes. C) acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel proteins. D) becoming a second messenger that inhibits adenylyl cyclase. E) coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases spermatogenesis. 17 ) Which of the following is true of transcription factors? A) They regulate the synthesis of DNA in response to a signal. B) They transcribe ATP into cAMP. C) They initiate the epinephrine response in animal cells. D) They help control gene expression. E) They regulate the synthesis of lipids in the cytoplasm. 18 ) One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this? A) G protein-coupled receptors B) ligand-gated ion channels C) steroid receptors D) receptor tyrosine kinases 19 ) Because most receptors are membrane proteins, which of the following is usually true? A) They lead to changes in intracellular ion concentration. B) They open and close in response to protein signals. C) They are only attached to one membrane surface: exterior or interior.
D) both an autocrine signal and a paracrine signal. E) an autocrine signal, a paracrine signal, and an endocrine signal. 26 ) Aspirin and ibuprofen both A) inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins. B) inhibit the release of nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator. C) activate the paracrine signaling pathways that form blood clots. D) stimulate the release of oxytocin. E) stimulate vasoconstriction in the kidneys. 27 ) Different body cells can respond differently to the same peptide hormones because A) different target cells have different sets of genes. B) each cell converts that hormone to a different metabolite. C) a target cell's response is determined by the components of its signal transduction pathways. D) the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets. E) the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the circulatory system. 28 ) The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in A) a neuron in the spinal cord. B) a steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex. C) a neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus. D) a brain cell in the cerebral cortex. E) a cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes. 29 ) If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time, he or she may die from dehydration. ADH can help reduce water loss through its interaction with its target cells in the A) anterior pituitary. B) posterior pituitary. C) adrenal gland. D) bladder. E) kidney. 30 ) The hypothalamus A) functions only as an endocrine target, by having lots of receptors on its cells. B) functions only as a osmoregulator C) does not have any hormone receptors on its cells. D) secretes tropic hormones that act only on the gonads. E) includes neurosecretory cells that terminate in the posterior pituitary. 31 ) Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of A) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate. B) the thyroid gland, leading to an increase in the blood calcium concentration. C) the anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function.
D) the adrenal gland, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine. E) the pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar concentration. 32 ) The body's reaction to PTH (parathyroid hormone), a reduction in plasma levels of calcium, can be opposed by A) thyroxine. B) epinephrine. C) growth hormone. D) calcitonin. E) glucagon. Chapter 39
- What is thigmotropism? A) Response to sunlight B) Response to touch C) Response to gravity D) Response to magnetism E) Response to moonlight 34 ) Which of the following statements is true regarding phototropism? A) It is caused by an electrical signal. B) One chemical involved is ethylene. C) Auxin causes a growth increase on one side of the stem. D) Removing the apical meristem enhances phototropism. 35 ) The ripening of fruit and the dropping of leaves and fruit are principally controlled by A) auxins. B) cytokinins. C) indole acetic acid. D) ethylene. E) carbon dioxide concentration (in air). 36 ) Auxin triggers the acidification of cell walls, which results in rapid growth, but also stimulates sustained, long-term cell elongation. What best explains how auxin brings about this dual growth response? A) Auxin binds to different receptors in different cells. B) Different concentrations of auxin have different effects. C) Auxin causes second messengers to activate both proton pumps on the plasma membrane and certain protein-producing genes within the same cells. D) The dual effects are due to two different types of auxins that are produced by different genes. E) Other antagonistic hormones modify auxin's effects. 37 ) A long-day plant will flower A) in the late fall. B) when the night is shorter than a critical value. C) only under artificial light in the summer.
C) replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions. D) replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions. E) neuron switching on its sodium-potassium pump to restore the initial conditions. 44 ) Saltatory conduction is a term applied to A) conduction of impulses across electrical synapses. B) an action potential that skips the axon hillock in moving from the dendritic region to the axon terminal. C) rapid movement of an action potential reverberating back and forth along a neuron. D) jumping from one neuron to an adjacent neuron. E) jumping from one node of Ranvier to the next in a myelinated neuron. 45 ) The surface on a neuron that discharges the contents of synaptic vesicles is the A) dendrite. B) axon hillock. C) node of Ranvier. D) postsynaptic membrane. E) presynaptic membrane. 46 ) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs in a membrane made more permeable to A) potassium ions. B) sodium ions. C) calcium ions. D) ATP. E) all neurotransmitter molecules. The following 50 questions are review questions covering the whole semester. Each is worth 1 point. There are series of five answers followed by questions related to those answers. Each answer can be used ONE TIME, MULTIPLE TIMES, or NO TIMES. A) Homeostasis B) Reductionism C) Tissue D) Hypothesis E) Induction 51 ) A collection of connected cells 52 ) The opposite of what whole organism biologists do 53 ) A key part of the scientific method A) Carbon B) Sodium
C) Ionic bonds D) H-bonds E) Van der Waal’s interactions 54 ) hold methyl groups together in an aqueous environment 55 ) hold water molecules together 56 ) An element often in ionic form A) Basic B) Polar C) Acidic D) Enantiomer E) Water 57 ) - COOH 58 ) – NH 2 59 ) – OH A) Glycogen B) Hemoglobin C) Fat D) A and B E) None 60 ) Not a polymer 61 ) A carbohydrate 62 ) A polypeptide A) Prokaryote B) Eukaryote C) Mitochondria D) A, B, C E) None 63 ) Has no internal membranes 64 ) Has no DNA
(D) (E)
74 ) G 3 P goes here 75 ) H 2 0 goes here 76 ) O 2 goes here 77 ) CO 2 goes here OH A) Phosphate group B) Sugar C) Nitrogenous base D) A + B + C E) none 78 ) Attached at the 1’ site
- A purine 80 ) A A) DNA polarity B) Semi-conservative replication C) Double Helix D) AT vs GC bonding E) All 81 ) Chargaff’s rule 82 ) 5’ to 3’ versus 3’ to 5’ 8 3) Watson & Crick’s discovery A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Ribosomes
D) Introns E) Polypeptides 84 ) Important in replication 85 ) Important in transcription 86 ) Important in translation A) Chromatin B) Chromosome C) Chromatid D) Centromere E) Centrosome 87 ) Source of the mitotic spindle 88 ) Replicated chromosome 89 ) Material of the chromosome A) Zygote B) Sperm C) Autosome D) Chiasmata E) Genome 90 ) Haploid B 91 ) A 92 ) A A) Pure bred B) Allele C) Character D) Hybrid E) Heterozygote 9 3) One manifestation of a gene
- Homozygous
- Corresponds to a gene
