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BIOD 171 PORTAGE LEARNING FINAL EXAM 2025
TEST BANK 400 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
VERIFIED ANSWERS.
A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit viral entry of Influenza. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why? - correct answer>>Hemagglutinin (HA) proteins would be targets as they are directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell. A facultative anaerobe is a microorganism capable of growth under what conditions? - correct answer>>A facultative anaerobe is capable of growth under aerobic (with oxygen) and anaerobic (without oxygen) conditions. A fluorescence microscope shows - correct answer>>Dark background and fluorescense bacteria (lime green) A gram stain has been attempted on an unknown sample, and it was found to have a high degree of resistance to decolorization. Given this property, which stain should be attempted next? - correct answer>>Acid-fast staining A micrometer is defined as: - correct answer>> 10 - 6 A patient diagnosed with German measles may additionally experience what disease? - correct answer>>Conjunctivitis, Influenza-like symptoms A person who has neither previously had chickenpox nor been administered the VZV vaccine is exposed to someone with an active VZV (shingles) outbreak and becomes infected. Explain why (or why not) the person will only develop shingles. - correct answer>>The infected individual will not develop shingles, but will develop chickenpox. Unvaccinated and
unexposed individuals must first develop chickenpox, as shingles is the reactivation of the dormant VZV virus from the chickenpox infection. A researcher is asked to determine if a sample contains Neisseria meningitides. Knowing Neisseria meningitides is slow growing and other foreign microbes may also be present in the culture, which type of media would be best suited? - correct answer>>Selective media A slide stained with methylene blue simple stain to observe cellular morphology - correct answer>>Bright field A virus that infects bacteria is called a [answer1] and contains a [answer2] - sided polygon capsid. - correct answer>>1. Bacteriophage
- 20 Alpha hemolysis has... - correct answer>>Incomplete Hemolitic activity An individual infected with HIV is placed on anti-retroviral medication. What is the general purpose of this medication? - correct answer>>As the name suggests, anti-retrovirals are intended to inhibit (anti) the life cycle of retroviruses (retro). An organism that obtains its source of carbon from inorganic molecules such as carbon dioxide is referred to as a ____________? - correct answer>>Autotroph An unstained sample that cannot be visualized with bright field because microorganism absorbs very little light - correct answer>>Dark field Anthrax causes the skin to look - correct answer>>burned and decayed of the flesh with a red ring around the wound
Define catabolism - correct answer>>Catabolism is the process of breaking down larger molecules into useful energy sources. Define commensal bacteria. - correct answer>>The bacterium neither harms nor benefits from the host from which it obtains nutrients. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP. - correct answer>>ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP ⟶⟶ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi ⟶⟶ATP). Describe the main differences between lytic and temperate phages. - correct answer>>Lytic bacteriophages replicate within the host bacteria until it ruptures, whereas temporate (or lysogenic) phages primarily exist in a non- replicative state that does not kill the host cell. Describe the relationship between chloroplasts and chlorophyll. - correct answer>>Both chloroplasts and chlorophyll are associated with photosynthesis. Chloroplasts are the double membrane-enclosed organelles that contain the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll. Describe the two basic components of a virus. - correct answer>>A virus has (1) genomic material comprised of either DNA or RNA and (2) a capsid, a membrane-like protective structure that contains the genetic material, similar to the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. Entry - correct answer>>utilization of a portal to gain access to host tissues Evasion
- correct answer>>Pathogen masks its own antigens to hide from the hosts immune system Explain why the flu shot given each year may not be 100% effective at preventing the flu? - correct answer>>It is possible to receive a flu vaccine and
yet (unfortunately) still get the flu in the same season if you are exposed to a viral strain that was not included in the vaccine. There are a large number of variants and the flu vaccine is unable to vaccinate against all subtypes. For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that apply. - correct answer>>Proteases, Lipases From what source do chemotrophs acquire energy? - correct answer>>Chemotrophs acquire energy from preformed chemicals found in the environment. Gamma Hemolysis has... - correct answer>>No hemolitic activities Gonnorrhea is caused by: - correct answer>>Diplococcic bacteria Gonorrhea - correct answer>>Cardiac and neurological complications Gram-Negative cells appear [answer1] in color due to a [answer2] peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. - correct answer>>1. Pink
- Thin Gram-Positive cells appear [answer1] in color due to a [answer2] peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. - correct answer>>1. Purple
- Thick Greater than 90% of all human streptococcal infections belong to: - correct answer>>Group A How many amino acids are classified as being essential amino acids? - correct answer>>Nine How many carbon atoms are present in glucose? - correct answer>> 6 How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to
In order to convert proteins into amino acids which metabolic process would be active? - correct answer>>Catabolism would be active as proteins are made up of amino acids. Therefore the process described (proteins into amino acids) is the breakdown, or catabolism of protein. In order to visual individual colonies of bacteria would you culture your sample in a liquid media or on a solid (agar) media? Why? - correct answer>>Solid (agar) media. The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient broth, bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on agar within a petri dish the fixed in such as way as to form colonies. In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. - correct answer>>Nucleic acids In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4? - correct answer>>P2 (Phase 2) would contain a higher concentration of bacteria than Phase 4 (P4). The phases rank (from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4. Infection occurs at time of birth - correct answer>>ophthalmia neonatorum Infection of thin, transparent scleral tissue - correct answer>>conjunctivitis List at least 3 observations a researcher would be sure to note while assessing an unknown microbial sample. - correct answer>>Size, shape, color, chemical reactions, image of the sample, gram staining (neg or positve) Microorganisms classified as Plantae obtain most of their energy by converting [answer1] energy into [answer2] energy. - correct answer>>1. Light (sunlight)
- chemical (sugars)
Parts of a bacteriaphage - correct answer>>Capsiud, Collar, Tail, Base Plate, Tail Fibers Place the following viral life cycle steps in order beginning with viral attachment and provide a description of each step. Uncoating: Release: Replication: Attachment: Entry: New infection: - correct answer>>Uncoating, release, replication, attachment, entry, new infection Proteins are formed from various combinations of - correct answer>>Amino acids Pus-filled lesions on skin or hair - correct answer>>folliculitis Rank the following viruses based on their size from largest to smallest: Orthomyxovirus Poliovirus Variolavirus - correct answer>>1) Variolavirus
- Orthomyxovirus
- Poliovirus Resolution is a factor that influence your ability to see an object. Explain - correct answer>>Resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one. Rheumatic fever displays ______ hemolytic activity and occurs when _______ is left untreated. - correct answer>>Beta; Strep. Pharyngitis Ruptured pustules; treated with Penicillin - correct answer>>scalded- skin syndrome
The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens? - correct answer>>Either deviation is acceptable in practice provided the resulting gradient contains within it the growth of individual colonies—if not, the experiment must be repeated. The plasma membrane - correct answer>>Restricts movement of materials in and out of the cell & Prevents essential nutrients from escaping The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants: select all that apply. - correct answer>>CO2, H2O, ATP, NADPH There are how many known forms of amino acids - correct answer>>twenty This phosphorylation process occurs in the mitochondria of chemotropic eukaryotes. - correct answer>>Oxidative phosphorylation This type of microscope enhances contrast between specimen and background but does not permit the visualization of intracellular structures. - correct answer>>Dark Field This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP, and YFP proteins. - correct answer>>Fluorescence This type of microscope is capable of capturing images in multiple focal planes, rendering a specimen in 3-D. - correct answer>>Confocal This type of microscope uses a specialized condenser and objective to amplify the slight differences between cells and background. - correct answer>>Phase-Contrast To be considered a pure culture, the sample (1) can be traced back to a single cell and (2)__________? - correct answer>>The culture must also be free from
external contaminants. Simply put, a pure sample would never contain multiple bacterial species (ie) Strep and Staph. True of False: The genetic material within a prokaryotic cell is contained within a membrane-enclosed region. - correct answer>>False Only eukaryotic cells contain its genetic material within a nucleus. True or False: A cell that is adherent, flat (thin), and unstained is easily identified using bright field microscopy. - correct answer>>False True or False: Archaea is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions. Correct! - correct answer>>True Archaea can often be found in harsh conditions such as high salt levels, high acid conditions, high temperatures and even oxygen-poor conditions. True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants. - correct answer>>True True or False: Chocolate agar gets its brown color from cocoa to produce an enriched media. - correct answer>>False Chocolate (cocoa) is never added to the media. The name is derived simply based on the color that actually comes from the presence of 'cooked' (lysed) red blood cells in the media. True or False: During fermentation one means of eliminating pyruvate is by converting it into lactic acid. - correct answer>>True Pyruvate can be converted into either lactic acid or ethanol and then eliminated from the cell. True or False: Enzymes slow down chemical reactions to conserve energy. - correct answer>>False
True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Archaea. - correct answer>>True True or False: Protista retain a unicellular classification, as they are unable to form tissue layers. - correct answer>>True True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. - correct answer>>False, dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur. True or False: The visualization of colonies on a petri dish represents bacterial cells that have multiplied ~2-3 times. - correct answer>>False True or False. A patient infected with rubella is considered infectious one week before and after the appearance of the trademark rash. - correct answer>>True True or False. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic. - correct answer>>False True or False. Although TB must be inhaled and reside in the lung in order to cause infection, TB can also spread to the brain, spine, and kidneys. - correct answer>>True TB can move systemically through the blood to infect other areas (brain, spine and kidney). However, when located outside of the lung, TB tends to be non-infectious. True or False. Because the genome is contained within an enclosed space (much like the nucleus of a cell), viruses are classified as eukaryotic. - correct answer>>False True or False. Bubonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes. - correct answer>>true
True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone. - correct answer>>False True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults. - correct answer>>False True or False. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow slower than normal non-pathogenic bacterial strains. - correct answer>>False Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C, which is why researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth. True or False. Someone who had chickenpox as a child is likely to develop shingles while in college, where the median age of college students is 18-22 years old. - correct answer>>False True or False. Staphylococcus is the only causative agent of conjunctivitis. - correct answer>>False True or False. Structurally, bacteriophages are distinct from viruses that infect plant or animal cells. - correct answer>>True. Bacteriophages are structurally distinct from viruses that infect plant and animals cells. True or False. The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide antigenic groups of gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus. - correct answer>>False The Lancefield groupings are used to subdivide beta-hemolytic Strep. True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population. - correct answer>>True True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system. - correct answer>>False
True or False. You would expect to see a viral envelope on a virus infecting a bacterial cell. - correct answer>>False True/False. A virus is considered a microorganism. - correct answer>>False, Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses. What are the four main types of macromolecules found in cells? - correct answer>>Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic Acids, Carbohydrates What are the main two roles of glucose- 6 - phosphate in the cell? - correct answer>>Glucose- 6 - phosphate, also known as G6P (1) prevents glucose from diffusing out of the cell as well as (2) serves as the signal molecule to the cell that glycolysis is about to begin. What are the requirements of a fastidious microbe? - correct answer>>Fastidious microbes have complex growth requirements such that if absent it will not grow. Enriched medias thus contain these specific and essential nutrients required for the growth What disease displays as a secondary characteristic swelling of the testes/ovaries and pancreas? - correct answer>>Mumps, causes primary swelling in the paratoid gland, testes and ovaries What does a SEM microscope show you? - correct answer>>Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM). The above image shows the trademark 'shell' image (no subcellular organelles are visible) reminiscent of SEM. Only TEM is capable of visualizing subcellular substrucutres.
What does the TEM microscope show? - correct answer>>Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). Even at 20nm resolution (inset image), subcellular substructures are still visible. What is a cofactor? - correct answer>>A cofactor is a small chemical component that assists an enzyme during the catalysis reactions. A cofactor is usually metal ions. What is agar used for in microbiology? - correct answer>>Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow. What is one of the main functions of light reactions? - correct answer>>Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP. What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose? - correct answer>>The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP. What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. - correct answer>>NADH, FADH What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a petri dish called? - correct answer>>Plating What is the role of DNA? - correct answer>>DNA, found in the nucleus contains vast amount of hereditary inforamtion, responible for inhereitable characteristic os living organisms. What is the role of RNA? - correct answer>>RNA , found in the nucleus is capable of leaving the nucleus. RNA is repsponsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and uses it to synthesize proteins. What is the smallest biological unit of life? - correct answer>>A cell What is the total magnification (relative to your eye) of a sample
formed. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the growth of individual colonies. Where are ribosomes located? - correct answer>>cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells and in the ER of eukaryotic cells. Where can the two major types of nucleic acids be found in the cell? - correct answer>>DNA, RNA. Found in the nucleus. Which form of the plague is highly virulent? What does it target? - correct answer>>Pneumonic plague is highly virulent and targets the respiratory (lungs) system. Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. - correct answer>>Algae, Amoeba Which of the following could be seen clearly by the unaided eye? - correct answer>>Protozoa with diameter of 150 μm, Skin cell with diameter of 1500 μm Which of the following microorganisms are considered to be Eukarya? Select all that apply. - correct answer>>Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, Protista Which subtype of Influenza is the most virulent? - correct answer>>Influenza A Which type of agar media is best suited to support the growth of Staphylococcus? - correct answer>>Mannitol salt agar Which viruses spread via airborne particles? - correct answer>>Measles, mumps, rubella While observing an unknown sample of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the following observations: (1) the presence of any motility and (2) its Gram status using the same sample—the liquid sample cannot be divided. Which would you determine first and why? - correct answer>>You
must determine motility before determining the Gram status. Motility requires a wet mount, while Gram staining requires heat fixing the sample. While visiting his grandparents, a 10-year-old child has green beans for dinner that were harvested from his grandparents' garden and canned the previous year. Severe illness sets in and the child is taken to the hospital. Botulism is suspected, but what form? - correct answer>>Foodborne botulism. The child is too old (> 6 months) to be considered for infant botulism and wounds were not present. The green beans were likely improperly canned You develop a fever, chills, and pneumonia after recently using a warm midst vaporizer in an attempt to open your sinuses. What bacterial disease would a doctor suspect is causing your symptoms? - correct answer>>Legionnaires. Legionella can only be transmitted through droplets small enough to be breathed in. You go to visit a friend who has chickenpox. While visiting what are 2 things you will be sure to avoid so that you don't also become infected? - correct answer>>(1) You would want to be sure to keep a distance especially if your friend is coughing or sneezing as chickenpox can be transmitted through air-borne droplets (sneezing/coughs). (2) You would also be absolutely certain to avoid direct contact with the blisters of an infected individual. You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. - correct answer>>You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative).
