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BIO-202 MIDTERM EXAM LATEST 2025 GCU 100% ACCURATE
HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II GRADED A+
The following hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland. Its two primary functions are to retain water in the body and to constrict blood vessels by regulating the body's retention of water by acting to increase water reabsorption in the kidney's collecting ducts. As a result, blood volume and osmotic pressure in the body remain constant: A) Aldosterone B) Anti-Diuretic Hormone C) Nitric Oxide D) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide E) Erythropoietin B) Anti-Diuretic Hormone
- An individual who presents with a blood type of "O negative" can. A) donate to all blood types, with the exception of blood containing the presence of the Rh antigen B) donate to all blood types, regardless of the presence or absence or the Rh antigen C) receive any blood type, including the presence of the Rh antigen on RBCs E) receive any blood type in moderate amounts, regardless of the presence or absence or the Rh antigen A) donate to all blood types, with the exception of blood containing the presence of the Rh antigen Best Small School Prospects in the 2022 NFL Draft The process by which all the formed elements of the blood develop from its tissue of origin is called:
A) erythropoiesis B) hematopoiesis C) erythrocytosis D) hemostasias E) thrombopoiesis B) hematopoiesis ) No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in what cell: A) monocytes B) basophils C) eosinophils D) neutrophils E) all of the above A) monocytes When anti-A serum and anti-B serum agglutinate on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type is considered to be: A) A B) B C) O D) AB E) Rh+ D) AB
Which sequence is correct for the following events?
- fibrinogen → fibrin
- clot retraction
- formation of thromboplastin
- prothrombin → thrombin A) 3, 4, 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 2, 1, 4E) 2, 3, 1, 4 A) 3, 4, 1, 2 The majority of TPO that stimulates the formation of clot-forming cells is found in the following tissue: A) red bone marrow B) plasma of the blood C) spleen D) liver E) platelets Add kidney for next time D) liver Fibrinolysis removes unneeded clots through the action of the fibrin-digesting enzyme,. A) plasminogen B) thrombin C) Factor X
D) plasmin E) Activated thromboxane (XA2) D) plasmin The following WBC is responsible for attacking and destroying tumor infected cells and virus- infected cells? A) macrophages B) lymphocytes C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) basophils B) lymphocytes Which of the following is not responsible for having a vasoconstrictive effect on blood vessels: A) ANP B) ADP C) serotonin D) thromboxane A E) endothelin A) ANP The following is not a major constitute of plasma: A) albumin B) electrolytes
A) pernicious anemia B) β - thalassemia C) iron deficiency anemia D) sickle cell anemia E) aplastic anemia D) sickle cell anemia )When these particular leukocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces via chemotactic stimuli, they transform from small WBCs into large phagocytic cells: A) neutrophil B) basophil C) eosinophil D) macrophage E) lymphocyte D) macrophage A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of. A) iron deficiency anemia B) polycythemia vera C) pernicious anemia D) sickle-cell anemia E) thalassemia C) pernicious anemia
A male patient 21 years of age comes into urgent care due to the progressive onset of malaise, lethargy, fatigue and a general sense of not feeling like himself. Upon clinical interrogation you discover that 4 weeks prior he had traveled to the rain forest of South America and had lived off the land, including drinking and bathing in a local river. Lab results demonstrate a Helminthic (parasitic) infection. What WBC is most likely elevated in this individual? A) neutrophils B) basophils C) eosinophils D) macrophagesE) lymphocytes C) eosinophil The following statement is not true of the coagulation cascade: A) The intrinsic pathway is a faster pathway, while the extrinsic is slower but more prolonged. B) the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways both converge on factor X. C) Prothrombin activator formed in both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways D) Prothrombin activator catalyzes transformation of prothrombin to active enzyme thrombin E) Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen to fibrin A) The intrinsic pathway is a faster pathway, while the extrinsic is slower but more prolonged. Ferritin is a protein used to: A) transport iron in the blood. B) store iron in the liver. C) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes. D) synthesize iron. E) absorb iron across intestinal cells B) store iron in the liver.
Regarding the question above, what is the most likely type of disease this patient is presenting with: A) sickle cell anemia B) polycythemia vera C) iron deficiency anemia D) hemophilia E) leukopenia D) hemophilia A 50 - year-old man presents to clinic with severe central chest pain after going for a run on a hot summer day. The chest pain does not resolve with rest or nitroglycerine. He is obese, has a history of hypertension, and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. His father died from a myocardial infarction at the age of 54 years. On examination, his blood pressure is 144/92 mmHg with a heart rate of 82 bpm. He is diagnosed as having an MI. What tissue has most greatly been affected regarding the pumping action of his heart: a) Epicardium b) Pericardium c) Supacardium d) Myocardium e) Endocardium d) Myocardium What choice below will result in a decrease in heart rate and/or force of contraction: a) stimulation of vagus nerve b) release of norepinephrine
c) hypercalcemia d) increased body temperature e) increased physical activity a) stimulation of vagus nerve What are the three most important factors that affect stroke volume. a) pulse, pressure, time b) Preload, heart rate, Afterload. c) Heart rate, Contractility, Stroke volume d) preload, afterload, stroke volume e) inotropy, Preload, Afterload e) inotropy, Preload, Afterload The correct sequential order of the intrinsic cardiac conduction system is: a) SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, subendocardial conducting network. b) SA node, AV node, bundle branches, AV bundle, subendocardial conducting network. c) AV node, SA node, AV bundle, bundle branches, subendocardial conducting network. d) SA node, AV bundle, AV node, bundle branches, subendocardial conducting network. e) SA node, bundle branches, AV bundle, AV node, subendocardial conducting network. a) SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, subendocardial conducting network The statement below describes what phase in the action potential in a ventricular muscle fiber: Ca2+ channels are gradually inactivated, leading to a persistent outflow of K+, which now exceeds Ca2+ inflow, which brings the membrane potential back towards it's resting potential of −90 mV to prepare the cell for a new cycle of depolarization. Normal transmembrane ionic
Through which structure does blood pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle? a) Bicuspid atrioventicular valve b) tricuspid semilunar valve c) Tricuspid atrioventicular valve d) Mitral semilumar valve e) aortic semilunar valve c) Tricuspid atrioventicular valve What structure listed below is not found in the atria: A) Pectinate muscles B) crista terminalis C) AV node D) Trabeculae carneae E) coronary sinus D) Trabeculae carneae Select the correct statement regarding the heart valves. A) The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle. B) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle. C) The tricuspid and bicuspid semilunar valves separate atria from ventricles D) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur. E) Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart.
D) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur. Rapid, irregular contractions; useless for pumping blood would manifest as what on an EKG: A) supraventricular tachycardia B) ventricular tachycardia C) atrial fibrillation D) ventricular fibrillation E) 3rd degree heart block D) ventricular fibrillation Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate? a) Midbrain b) Cerebrum c) Medulla oblongata d) Cerebellum e) Thalamus c) Medulla oblongata If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, and thus a faster and stronger heart beat, the following effect would not occur: A) vagal stimulatory effect B) positive Dromotropic effect C) positive Inotropic effect
A) stroke volume (SV) B) cardiac output (CO) C) end-systolic volume (ESV) D) cardiac reserve (CR)E) end-diastolic volume (EDV) C) end systolic volume (ESV) ardiac output (CO) equals: A) preload x afterload B) heart rate x stroke volume C) end diastolic volume - end systolic volume D) cardiac reserve x stroke volume E) heart rate x afterload B) heart rate x stroke volume What is most likely to happen when an increase in inotropy occurs. This dynamic is produced by sympathetic stimulation on the heart. A) decreases SV; increases ESV B) increases SV; increases EDV C) increases SV; decreases ESV D) decreases SV; increases ESV E) decreases ESV; decreases EDV C) increases SV; decreases ESV Norepinephrine acts on the heart by.
A) decreasing heart contractility B) causing a decrease in stroke volume C) blocking the action of calcium D) causing threshold to be reached more quickly E) causing the heart to fibrillate D) causing threshold to be reached more quickly By understanding relationships between stroke volume, ESV and EDV, we can understand certain pathological states. One such pathology is hypertension, defined as a blood pressure reading greater than 140/90mHg. Which over time will reduce the ability of the ventricles to eject blood. This pathological relationship is best defined as: A) increases preload, resulting in increased ESV and reduced SV B) increases afterload, resulting in increased ESV and reduced SV C) decreases afterload, resulting in increased ESV and reduced SV D) increases afterload, resulting in increased EDV and reduced SV E) increases afterload, resulting in increased ESV and increased SV B) increases afterload, resulting in increased ESV and reduced SV The QRS complex of a normal electrocardiogram indicates. A) ventricular repolarization and atrial depolarization B) atrial depolarization and ventricular depolarization C) ventricular depolarization and atrial depolarization D) ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization E) ventricular repolarization and atrial polarization D) ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization
The degree of stretch on the heart before contraction is defined as: A) afterload B) cardiac output C) Inotropy D) preload E) cardiac reserve D) preload The following vessel drains directly into the liver: A) superior mesenteric vein B) splenic vein C) hepatic portal vein D) inferior vena cava E) gastric vein C) hepatic portal vein Which statement is true of capillary exchange? a) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure pushes fluid from the capillaries to the interstitial fluid b) blood hydrostatic pressure is lower at the venous end of a capillary c) blood colloid osmotic pressure is due to dissolved ions d) filtration is the movement from the interstitial fluid into the capillaries e) blood hydrostatic pressure is caused by the elasticity of the large arteries b) blood hydrostatic pressure is lower at the venous end of a capillary
What type of vessel is most adept at vasoconstriction. a) elastic arteries b) large veins c) arterioles d) capillaries e) muscular arteries e) muscular arteries The following statement is false: A) left brachiocephalic vein arises from the superior vena cava B) The left jugular vein immediately drains into the left subclavian vein C) the superior vena cava gives rise to the right and left brachiocephalic vein D) the right subclavian vein immediately drains into the right brachiocephalic vein E) the left axillary vein arises from the left subclavian vein B) The left jugular vein immediately drains into the left subclavian vein The velocity of blood flow is. A) in direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels B) slower in arteries than in capillaries because arteries possess a relatively large diameter C) slower in veins than in capillaries because veins have a large diameter D) slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest E) fastest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest D) slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest
