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ATI (VIRTUAL ATI) OB COMPLETE EXAM 2025-2026.WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

ATI (VIRTUAL ATI) OB COMPLETE EXAM 2025-2026.WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT & VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES/A+ GRADE

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 04/14/2025

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ATI (VIRTUAL ATI) OB COMPLETE EXAM 2025-
2026.WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT &
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES/A+ GRADE
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Epigastric pain: The nurse should notify the provider of the client's report of epigastric
pain because this is a manifestation of preeclampsia. Other findings the nurse should
report include severe headache, blurred vision, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and
decreased urinary output.
b. Leukorrhea: Leukorrhea, or vaginal discharge, is an expected finding throughout
pregnancy. Leukorrhea increases during pregnancy due to hypertrophy of the cervix,
which increases the amount of mucus secreted from the vagina.
c. Excessive salivation: Ptyalism, or excessive salivation, is an expected finding in
pregnancy. Increased levels of estrogen cause an increase in the production of saliva.
d. Darkening of the skin on the face: Hyperpigmentation on the face, or melasma, is an
expected finding during pregnancy. The anterior pituitary gland increases the
production of melanocyte-stimulating hormone, causing an increase in pigmentation
of the skin.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision 48 hr ago. The nurse should identify
that yellow exudate covering the newborn's glans penis indicates which of the following?
a. Wound infection: Infected circumcision wounds appear swollen with a purulent discharge.
b. Ulceration: Yellow exudate following a circumcision is not a manifestation of an
ulceration.
c. Exposure to urine: Yellow exudate is not a manifestation resulting from the wound being
exposed to urine.
d. Healing: After 24 hours, yellow exudate usually forms over the glans penis and remains
for the next 2 to 3 days. It sometimes forms a crust, which is expected. The nurse
should explain that the yellow film the guardians will see is granulation tissue as the
circumcision heals. The guardians should not remove this tissue.
3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is in the latent phase of labor. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to manage the client's pain?
a. Encourage the client to listen to music: During the latent phase of labor, the nurse should
implement nonpharmacological strategies to encourage relaxation and provide pain relief.
There are a wide variety of cutaneous and sensory measures that are simple to implement
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Download ATI (VIRTUAL ATI) OB COMPLETE EXAM 2025-2026.WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

ATI (VIRTUAL ATI) OB COMPLETE EXAM 202 5 -

2026 .WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT &

VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES/A+ GRADE

  1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. Epigastric pain: The nurse should notify the provider of the client's report of epigastric pain because this is a manifestation of preeclampsia. Other findings the nurse should report include severe headache, blurred vision, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and decreased urinary output. b. Leukorrhea: Leukorrhea, or vaginal discharge, is an expected finding throughout pregnancy. Leukorrhea increases during pregnancy due to hypertrophy of the cervix, which increases the amount of mucus secreted from the vagina. c. Excessive salivation: Ptyalism, or excessive salivation, is an expected finding in pregnancy. Increased levels of estrogen cause an increase in the production of saliva. d. Darkening of the skin on the face: Hyperpigmentation on the face, or melasma, is an expected finding during pregnancy. The anterior pituitary gland increases the production of melanocyte-stimulating hormone, causing an increase in pigmentation of the skin.
  2. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision 48 hr ago. The nurse should identify that yellow exudate covering the newborn's glans penis indicates which of the following? a. Wound infection: Infected circumcision wounds appear swollen with a purulent discharge. b. Ulceration: Yellow exudate following a circumcision is not a manifestation of an ulceration. c. Exposure to urine: Yellow exudate is not a manifestation resulting from the wound being exposed to urine. d. Healing: After 24 hours, yellow exudate usually forms over the glans penis and remains for the next 2 to 3 days. It sometimes forms a crust, which is expected. The nurse should explain that the yellow film the guardians will see is granulation tissue as the circumcision heals. The guardians should not remove this tissue.
  3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is in the latent phase of labor. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to manage the client's pain? a. Encourage the client to listen to music: During the latent phase of labor, the nurse should implement nonpharmacological strategies to encourage relaxation and provide pain relief. There are a wide variety of cutaneous and sensory measures that are simple to implement

during this stage of labor, such as music, rocking, breathing techniques, walking and application of hot or cold packs. b. Instruct the client how to use biofeedback: Biofeedback can be an effective method to reduce the discomfort of labor by promoting self-awareness and relaxation. However, the client must have received instruction and practiced this technique prior to labor for it to be effective. c. Administer fentanyl 100 mcg every hour via intermittent IV bolus…Fentanyl is an opioid agonist analgesic that enhances a client's ability to rest between contractions. However, opioids can also inhibit uterine contractions and prolong labor. Therefore, avoid administration of opioid analgesia until a client reaches the active phase of labor or cervical dilation of at least 4 cm. d. Request the provider administer a pudendal nerve block….A pudendal nerve block relieves pain in the lower vagina and perineum during the second or third stage of labor. It provides anesthesia for episiotomy or repair of lacerations following birth.

  1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a postpartum client who is receiving warfarin for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor? a. WBC count: The nurse should monitor the WBC count for clients who have conditions such as chorioamnionitis. However, it is not necessary for the nurse to monitor this level for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. b. International normalized ratio (INR): The nurse should monitor the INR of a client who is taking warfarin. Prothrombin time (PT) is also measured to regulate warfarin therapy. However, PT values are more difficult to interpret. INR is determined by multiplying the PT by a correction factor based on the specific thromboplastin preparation used for the test, as a way of equalizing laboratory-to-laboratory variations. c. Plasminogen levels: Plasminogen is fibrinolytic and is usually elevated during pregnancy. However, it is not necessary for the nurse to monitor this level for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): The nurse should review aPTT if client is receiving heparin.
  2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has preeclampsia prior to administering labetalol. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication? a. Uric acid 7.5 mg/dL: The nurse should identify that a uric acid level of 7.5 mg/dL is above the expected reference range of 2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL for a client who is pregnant. Elevated uric acid is a manifestation of preeclampsia and is caused by decreased renal perfusion. However, an elevated uric acid level is not a contraindication for the administration of labetalol, an antihypertensive medication. b. Heart rate 54/min: The nurse should identify that a heart rate of 54/min is below the

b. Decrease in blood glucose level: Maternal metabolism, physical exertion, and delivery of the placenta can lead to a decreased blood glucose level. c. Decrease in respiratory rate: Anxiety and increased oxygen consumption from physical exertion during labor can lead to an increased respiratory rate. d. Decrease in temperature: Vascular changes during labor can lead to an elevated temperature, flushed cheeks, and warm skin.

  1. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth who has meconium-stained amniotic fluid and exhibits good muscle tone and respiratory efforts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Dry the newborn: The nurse should dry the newborn to reduce evaporative heat loss; however , another action is the priority. b. Provide tactile stimulation for the newborn.: Tactile stimulation might be required to elicit crying efforts by the newborn; however, another action is the priority. Tactile stimulation prior to suctioning of the mouth and pharynx can cause meconium to enter the airways of the newborn. c. Begin suctioning of mouth and nose.: The greatest risk to the newborn is injury from meconium aspiration syndrome and respiratory distress; therefore, the priority action the nurse should take is to suction the mouth and nose. The nurse should assess the newborn's condition at birth and suction the newborn's mouth and nose with a bulb syringe based on the assessment findings. If the newborn's respiratory status is depressed, endotracheal suctioning must be done as well to remove any meconium that has entered the newborn's airways. d. Initiate skin-to-skin contact.: Thermoregulation is important for all newborns, especially newborns whose respiratory status might be compromised; however, another action is the priority.
  2. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following are findings of this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension is incorrect. Hypotension is a finding associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. a.Tachycardia is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first trimester and results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional deficiencies. Tachycardia is a finding of severe dehydration. b. Dry mucous membranes is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first trimester and results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional deficiencies. Dry mucous membranes are a finding of severe dehydration. c. Poor skin turgor is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first trimester and results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional deficiencies. Poor skin turgor is a finding of severe dehydration. d. Polyuria is incorrect. Polyuria is not a finding associated with hyperemesis gravidarum.
  1. A nurse is caring for a newborn who was delivered by cesarean birth 1 min ago and displays some flexion of the extremities, is not crying, has irregular respiratory effort, and has a heart rate of 92/min. The nurse notes grimacing but no crying when rubbing the soles of the newborn's feet. The newborn's skin color is pink with blue extremities. What is the correct Apgar score?

d. Advantage of early ambulation post-surgical procedure is correct. Early ambulation following a cesarean birth facilitates circulation in the lower extremities, preventing stasis, and assists with relieving gas pains. e. The need for an indwelling urinary catheter during delivery is correct. The nurse should place an indwelling urinary catheter prior to the cesarean birth to keep the client's bladder empty and to avoid interference with the surgical procedure.

  1. A nurse is assessing a 1 HOUR-old newborn. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. Transient circumoral cyanosis: Transient circumoral cyanosis is bluish discoloration around the mouth of the newborn and is an expected finding that does not require reporting to the provider. b. Transient strabismus: Transient strabismus is a disorder in which the two eyes do not look in the same direction. This is an expected finding during the newborn period until 3 to 4 months of age and does not require reporting to the provider. c. Caput succedaneum: Caput succedaneum is swelling of the scalp of the newborn and is an expected finding following a vaginal birth. While it is important to assess and document, it does not require reporting to the provider. d. Generalized petechiae: Generalized petechiae are pinpoint round spots that appear on the skin, which can indicate a clotting factor deficiency or infection. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.
  2. A nurse is assessing a newborn. Which of the following findings indicates a need to check the newborn's blood glucose level for hypoglycemia? a. Shrill cry: A shrill cry can be indicative of neonatal abstinence syndrome and hypocalcemia. Additional findings of neonatal abstinence syndrome include tachypnea, irritability, tremors, incessant crying, frequent sneezing, frequent yawning, excessive sweating, exaggerated Moro reflex, mottling of skin, uncoordinated sucking, incessant hunger, vomiting, and diarrhea. b. Weak peripheral pulses: Weak peripheral pulses are not a finding associated with hypoglycemia. c. Yellowish skin: Yellowish skin is a finding associated with hyperbilirubinemia. The nurse should assess for hyperbilirubinemia every 8 to 12 hr by pressing the sternum or forehead with a finger for several seconds and then releasing the pressure. The area will blanch and appear yellow if jaundice is present. Other areas to assess in newborns who have darker skin tones include the conjunctival sacs and the oral mucosa. d. Hypotonia: CNS findings of hypoglycemia include lethargy and hypotonia, as well as jitteriness, twitching, poor feeding, temperature instability, apnea, respiratory distress, and seizures.
  3. A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hr ago and is reporting increasing perineal pain and pressure. The nurse examines the client's perineum and sees a 4 cm (1.6 in) area of purplish discoloration with swelling. The nurse should interpret these findings as

whichof the following? a. A hematoma: A hematoma is a collection of blood in the connective tissue while the overlying skin or mucous membranes remain intact. Hematomas develop from injury to soft tissue in

  1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postpartum. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Click on the "Exhibit" button for additional information about the client. There are three tabs that contain separate categories of data.) EXHIBIT

a. Instruct the client to stop breastfeeding.: Fever for 2 consecutive days, chills, foul- smelling lochia, and abdominal tenderness are manifestations of endometritis, an infection of the lining of the uterus. The nurse should assist the client with bonding, including breastfeeding, during this time as the client might experience fatigue. b. Obtain a vaginal culture.; MY ANSWER: Fever for 2 consecutive days, chills, foul- smelling lochia, and abdominal tenderness are manifestations of endometritis, an infection of the lining of the uterus. The nurse should obtain a vaginal culture using a sterile swab to collect the fluid from the client's vaginal cavity to identify the organism. c. Initiate airborne isolation precautions.: Fever for 2 consecutive days, chills, foul- smelling lochia, and abdominal tenderness are manifestations of endometritis, an infection of the lining of the uterus. Airborne isolation precautions are not indicated. The nurse should use gloves when assisting the client with perineal care. d. Place the client on strict bed rest.: Fever for 2 consecutive days, chills, foul-smelling lochia, and abdominal tenderness are manifestations of endometritis, an infection of the lining of the uterus. The nurse should assist the client to ambulate frequently to promote drainage of the infected lochia and prevent pooling within the uterus.

  1. A nurse is teaching a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I will avoid eating high-carbohydrate, sugary snacks.": Clients who have hyperemesis gravidarum might find that eating a high-carbohydrate, sweet snack before consuming protein will decrease nausea and vomiting. b. "I will drink 16 ounces of water during each meal.": The client should consume liquids and solids separately throughout the day to self-manage hyperemesis. c. "I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.: The client should focus on eating small, frequent meals throughout the day and consuming foods that are appealing. d. "I will eliminate dairy products from my diet.": The client should not eliminate dairy products from the diet because dairy foods might be easier to tolerate than other foods.
  2. A nurse is reviewing the results of a nonstress test for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings indicates a reactive nonstress test? a. Fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations occur with fetal movement: A nonstress test measures the response of the FHR to fetal movement. Accelerations of the FHR with fetal movement are a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. b. Late decelerations of the FHR occur with contractions: Late decelerations of the FHR with contractions are an indication of fetal compromise due to uteroplacental insufficiency. Late decelerations require further evaluation. c. Variable decelerations of the FHR with uterine contractions: Variable decelerations of the FHR with uterine contractions might indicate fetal compromise due to a disruption in the oxygen supply to the fetus. Variable decelerations require further evaluation.

a. Respiratory rate 12/min: The nurse should identify that respiratory depression is a manifestation of magnesium sulfate toxicity. A respiratory rate of 12/min is within the expected reference range of 12 to 20/min. Therefore, this finding is an indication that calcium gluconate was effective. b. Absent deep tendon reflexes: The nurse should identify that absent deep tendon reflexes is a manifestation of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Therefore, this finding d oes not indicate that calcium gluconate was effective. Other manifestations of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respiratory depression, blurred vision, decreased consciousness, and cardiac arrest. c. Slurred speech: The nurse should identify that slurred speech is a manifestation of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Therefore, this finding does not indicate that calcium gluconate was effective. Other manifestations of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respiratory depression, blurred vision, decreased consciousness, and cardiac arrest. d. Urine output 22 mL/hr: The nurse should identify that preeclampsia decreases perfusion to organs and tissues. Decreased renal perfusion reduces the glomerular filtration rate which causes oliguria, or urine output less than 25 mL/hr. Decreased renal perfusion increases the risk for magnesium toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should identify urinary output of 22 mL/hr as a manifestation of preeclampsia that increases the risk of magnesium toxicity.

  1. A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are postpartum. Which of the following clients is at an increased risk for a fall? a. A client who has an indwelling urinary catheter : The nurse should identify that a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter is at an increased risk for a fall. The client's required medical interventions, such as IVs and urinary catheters, increase the risk for falls from tripping over tubing. The nurse should assist the client when getting out of bed and ambulating to prevent an injury from a fall. b. A client who has a second-degree perineal laceration: The nurse should identify that a second-degree perineal laceration does not increase the client's risk for a fall. A second-degree laceration extends through the perineal fascia and muscles but does not involve the anal sphincter. c. A client who is saturating a perineal pad every 5 to 6 hr: The nurse should identify that a client who is saturating a perineal pad every 5 to 6 hr is not at an increased risk for a fall. A client who saturates a perineal pad in less than 1 hr is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding and might be experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage. Excessive bleeding can cause dizziness and syncope, which increases the risk for a fall. d. A client who is experiencing breast engorgement: The nurse should identify that a client who is experiencing breast engorgement is not at an increased risk for a fall. Breast engorgement occurs 3 to 5 days following birth due to significantly increased volume of breast milk. Engorgement usually lasts approximately 24 hr and can be relieved by breastfeeding or pumping the breasts every 2 hr.
  1. A nurse is caring for a client who received terbutaline subcutaneously. Which of the following findings is an indication the medication was effective? a. Cervical dilation 4 cm: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that is used to halt preterm labor by causing relaxation of smooth muscle. Cervical dilation of 4 cm indicates the client is in active labor. Therefore, the nurse should not identify this finding as an indication that terbutaline was effective.

nurse should include that the most accurate indication of organ perfusion is the client's urine output. Output greater than 30 mL/hr is an indication of adequate perfusion and oxygenation. d. "An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringer's is given for each 1 mL of blood loss.": The charge nurse should include that 3 mL of a crystalloid solution , such as lactated Ringer's or 0.9% sodium chloride, should be infused for every 1 mL of estimated blood loss.

  1. A nurse is performing a contraction stress test (CST) on a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation. The results of the test indicate a negative CST. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Repeat the CST in 20 min.: Repeating the CST in 20 min is not indicated for a CST that indicates a negative result. A pattern of intermittent late decelerations indicate a positive CST. The test should be repeated when fewer than half of the contractions lead to late decelerations. b. Administer an IV fluid bolus.: Administering an IV fluid bolus is not indicated for a CST that indicates a negative result. c. Prepare the client for cesarean birth.: Preparing the client for cesarean birth is not indicated for a CST that indicates a negative result. d. Allow the labor to progress naturally.: The absence of late decelerations (a negative result) indicates that the fetus will probably tolerate labor; therefore, the nurse should allow the labor to progress naturally.
  2. A nurse is monitoring a client who is in the active phase of labor and has an intrauterine pressure catheter and fetal scalp electrode. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Uterine contractions every 15 min: The nurse should expect contractions to occur every 3 to 5 min for a client who is in the active phase of labor. The contractions are moderate to strong in intensity and last approximately 40 to 70 seconds. During the latent phase of labor, contractions occur every 5 to 30 min. b. FHR baseline 166/min with minimal variability: The nurse should identify that an FHR of 166/min is above the expected reference range of 110 to 160/min and indicates tachycardia. Fetal tachycardia can indicate fetal hypoxemia, maternal fever or infection, and fetal anemia. Minimal variability is also an indication of fetal hypoxemia and can be caused by congenital abnormalities in the fetus, maternal use of CNS depressant medications, and fetal prematurity. Fetal sleep can also cause a temporary and harmless decrease in variability, which should last no more than 30 min. c. Late decelerations in FHR: The nurse should identify that late decelerations can indicate uteroplacental insufficiency or a disruption in the oxygen transport to the fetus. Late decelerations can be caused by maternal hypotension, uterine tachysystole, preeclampsia, or maternal diabetes. The nurse should place the client in a lateral position, palpate the uterus for tachysystole, increase the rate of the maintenance IV fluid, administer oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min via nonrebreather face mask, and notify the provider. d. Montevideo units (MVU) of 220 mm Hg: The nurse should identify that an MVU of 220 mm Hg is within the expected range during the active phase of labor. MVUs generally range between 100 to 250 mm Hg during the first stage of labor and increase to 300 to 400 mm Hg during the second stage of labor. MVUs are calculated by subtracting the baseline uterine pressure from the peak contraction pressure for every contraction that occurs during a 10-min period. The nurse then adds the pressure produced by each contraction during that time to determine the MVUs.

a. Give glucose water after feedings.: Glucose water should not be given to newborns who are prescribed phototherapy, because it delays bilirubin excretion. b. Instruct the client to avoid breastfeeding during treatment.: The client can continue breastfeeding while the newborn is prescribed phototherapy and can also be asked to pump the breast following the feeding for supplementary breast milk. c. Monitor intake and output.: The nurse should monitor intake and output because phototherapycan increase the rate of insensible water loss, which contributes to fluid loss and dehydration. The nurse should also monitor the newborn's fontanels. Hydration is achieved by breastfeeding or formula feeding the newborn. d. Apply lotions and ointments throughout the treatment.: The nurse should avoid applying lotions and ointments to newborns who are receiving phototherapy because it can cause burns.

  1. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor and observes a pattern of late decelerations on the fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority? a. Discontinue oxytocin.: The nurse should discontinue oxytocin because it can impede oxygen transfer to the fetus; however, evidence-based practice indicates that another action is the priority. b. Increase IV fluid rate.: The nurse should administer a bolus of IV fluid to treat maternal hypotension; however, evidence-based practice indicates that another action is the priority. c. Position the client laterally.: Late decelerations occur because of uteroplacental insufficiency. According to evidence-based practice, the priority action the nurse should take is to first position the client in a lateral position to improve oxygenation to the fetus. d. Administer oxygen via facemask at 8 L/min.: The nurse should administer oxygen via nonrebreather facemask at 8 to 10 L/min to improve oxygenation and treat uteroplacental insufficiency; however, evidence-based practice indicates that another action is the priority.
  2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and observes the client choking while eating lunch. The client is unable to speak or cough. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse should take to clear the airway obstruction. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.)
    • Stand posterior to the client.
    • Position arms under the client's axilla and across the client's chest.
    • Place thumb-side of a clenched fist to the client's mid-sternum area.
    • Initiate chest thrusts to the client using a backward motion. An obstructed airway requires immediate intervention. According to the American Heart Association's guidelines, the nurse should first stand posterior to the client. Next, the nurse should

position their arms under the client's axilla and across the client's chest. Then, the nurse should place the thumb-side of a clenched fist to the client's mid-sternum area and place the other hand on top of the first. Lastly, the nurse should initiate chest thrusts to the client using a