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ATI SKILLS MODULES CHECK-OFFS QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
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c. Use the dominant hand to insert the catheter after sterile gloves are on d. Clean the meatus after catheter insertion The dominant sterile hand is used to insert the catheter after the non- dominant hand exposes the urinary meatus.
10.The nurse prepares to suction a client via tracheostomy. What is correct? a. Apply suction while inserting the catheter b. Use a sterile technique for oral suctioning c. Apply suction while withdrawing the catheter d. Hyperoxygenate the client after suctioning Suction is only applied while withdrawing to prevent trauma and hypoxia. 11.When collecting a clean-catch urine specimen, the client should be instructed to: a. Collect the first voided urine b. Begin voiding, then collect the specimen midstream c. Use a sterile container after voiding d. Wipe from back to front Midstream specimens help reduce contamination from urethral flora. 12.To prevent infection when inserting an indwelling catheter: a. Cleanse perineal area with tap water only b. Use sterile gloves for cleansing c. Use sterile technique during insertion d. Apply antibiotic ointment before insertion Sterile technique is essential to prevent introducing bacteria into the bladder. 13.When assisting a client with a bedpan: a. Place the bedpan with the wider end under the thighs b. Ensure the head of bed is elevated c. Leave the client flat for comfort
d. Position the bedpan under the knees Elevating the head of the bed allows gravity to assist and promotes comfort. 14.A nurse is measuring intake and output. What should be included as output? a. Ice chips b. IV fluids c. Emesis d. Water retained in tissues Emesis is a measurable output and must be documented for fluid balance. 15.The nurse must restrain a confused client. Which action is appropriate? a. Apply restraints to side rails b. Use quick-release knots c. Tie to the headboard d. Keep the restraints tight to prevent movement Quick-release knots allow for fast removal in an emergency. 16.When using a transfer belt, where should it be placed? a. Below the waist b. Around the client’s waist c. On the chest d. Over the shoulders A gait belt is placed around the waist to provide support during ambulation or transfer.
d. Foam dressing Hydrocolloids keep the wound moist and promote healing in stage II ulcers. 21.A nurse is removing an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following is appropriate? a. Cut the balloon port b. Deflate the balloon completely before removal c. Remove it during a void d. Pull quickly in one motion Deflating the balloon prevents urethral trauma during removal. 22.When performing passive range of motion (PROM), the nurse should: a. Perform exercises to the point of discomfort b. Support the joints above and below c. Perform all exercises without repositioning d. Perform each movement once Supporting above and below the joint stabilizes the limb and prevents injury. 23.A nurse is preparing to apply a condom catheter. What is the correct step? a. Shave the pubic area b. Use adhesive tape to secure c. Leave 1–2 inches between the tip of penis and catheter d. Pull the catheter tightly Leaving space allows urine to collect and prevents pressure at the tip.
24.Which intervention reduces risk of aspiration during tube feeding? a. Supine position b. Turn client to the left side c. Elevate head of bed to 30–45 degrees d. Hold feeding until the client eats Elevating the head reduces risk of reflux and aspiration. 25.Before administering medication via enteral tube, the nurse should: a. Administer all medications together b. Flush the tube with water c. Crush extended-release tablets d. Mix medication with tube feeding Flushing the tube helps maintain patency and ensures full delivery of medication. 26.What is the most important step before applying antiembolic stockings? a. Apply them after the client is up and moving b. Measure the client’s legs c. Apply powder to the legs d. Soak the stockings in warm water Proper measurement ensures correct sizing to promote venous return. 27.When applying a sterile dressing, which action ensures asepsis? a. Touching the inside of the dressing b. Using sterile gloves to handle dressing materials c. Placing tape before dressing
Side-lying position prevents aspiration during oral care in unconscious clients. 31.Which of the following actions violates sterile technique? a. Keeping hands above waist level b. Opening sterile packages away from the body c. Turning your back on the sterile field d. Holding items 6 inches above the sterile field Turning your back on a sterile field compromises sterility. 32.Before inserting a Foley catheter, the nurse should instruct the client to: a. Take deep breaths and bear down b. Relax and breathe slowly c. Hold their breath during insertion d. Tighten abdominal muscles Deep, slow breathing promotes relaxation and eases insertion. 33.When applying a warm compress, the nurse should: a. Apply heat directly to skin b. Cover the compress with a towel c. Leave in place for 60 minutes d. Secure tightly with tape Covering the compress protects skin and prevents burns. 34.What is the priority action after removing PPE? a. Document the procedure b. Perform hand hygiene c. Turn off the lights
d. Notify the provider Hand hygiene is always the final and essential step after PPE removal. 35.When performing a heel-to-toe gait using a walker, the nurse should instruct the client to: a. Hold the walker one arm’s length ahead b. Walk without touching the walker c. Move the walker, then step with the affected leg first d. Lean forward over the walker Clients using a walker should step with the affected leg first after moving the walker forward. 36.To clean a central line catheter site, the nurse should use: a. Tap water b. Chlorhexidine in a back-and-forth motion c. Hydrogen peroxide in circles d. Alcohol wipes in any direction Chlorhexidine applied using friction in a back-and-forth motion is effective for antisepsis. 37.Which item should be removed last when taking off PPE? a. Gloves b. Gown c. Mask d. Face shield The mask is removed last to protect against airborne particles until all other contamination is removed.
d. No special precautions TB requires airborne precautions and use of an N95 respirator. 42.The nurse assesses a client with a pulse oximeter. What should be reported? a. 96% on room air b. 89% on room air c. 98% after ambulation d. 94% while talking A reading below 90% indicates hypoxia and should be reported immediately. 43.When using crutches, the correct measurement includes: a. Crutch tips 6 inches behind the feet b. Crutch tips 6 inches in front and to the side c. Top of crutches at neck level d. Elbows flexed at 45 degrees Proper placement is 6 inches forward and to the side of the feet. 44.When emptying a surgical drain, the nurse should: a. Wear sterile gloves b. Use clean gloves and compress drain before closing c. Pull the drain without assistance d. Avoid measuring output Drains should be compressed after emptying to maintain suction. 45.A client is prescribed oxygen via nasal cannula. Which action is appropriate?
a. Apply petroleum jelly around nares b. Set flow rate to 10 L/min c. Ensure tubing is secure and oxygen is flowing d. Use humidifier for flow under 2 L/min Oxygen flow and secure tubing are essential to effective delivery. 46.When assisting a client with dysphagia, the nurse should: a. Give large bites b. Encourage chin-down position c. Tilt the head back d. Offer liquids between solids The chin-down position helps protect the airway during swallowing. 47.A nurse is using a pulse oximeter. What factor may affect reading accuracy? a. Age b. Nail polish c. Hair color d. Height Nail polish can interfere with the sensor’s ability to detect oxygen saturation. 48.When performing trach care, the nurse should: a. Use clean gloves throughout b. Avoid removing inner cannula c. Use sterile technique d. Insert suction catheter to the base of the trachea Sterile technique prevents infection during invasive tracheostomy care.
a. Apply lotion to the skin b. Begin with perineal care c. Ask the client about preferences d. Start from the feet and move upward Client-centered care involves asking about preferences to promote comfort and dignity. 53.Which action maintains aseptic technique when adding a sterile item to a field? a. Drop the item from below waist level b. Slide the item across the field c. Drop the item from 6 inches above the field d. Place the item near the edge Dropping an item from 6 inches avoids contamination and preserves sterility. 54.The nurse observes a CNA using alcohol-based hand rub. Which action is correct? a. Rinsing hands with water afterward b. Drying hands with a towel c. Rubbing until completely dry d. Using it before and after handwashing Alcohol-based hand rub must be rubbed until fully dry to be effective. 55.A nurse is feeding a client with dysphagia. Which action is correct? a. Use a straw for liquids b. Offer small bites and allow time to chew
c. Recline the client to 30 degrees d. Alternate solids and liquids quickly Small bites reduce the risk of aspiration and promote safe swallowing. 56.When inserting a peripheral IV catheter, what indicates correct placement? a. Flashback of blood in the syringe b. Blood return in the flashback chamber c. Resistance when inserting the catheter d. Inability to advance the catheter Blood return in the flashback chamber confirms vessel entry. 57.To prevent skin breakdown in a bed-bound client, the nurse should: a. Use talcum powder b. Reposition the client every 2 hours c. Limit fluid intake d. Massage reddened areas Regular repositioning promotes circulation and prevents pressure ulcers. 58.What is a priority nursing action before applying oxygen via face mask? a. Instruct client to breathe through mouth b. Assess for skin breakdown around the ears c. Ensure the oxygen is humidified d. Set the flow rate to 2 L/min The nurse must assess skin to prevent irritation and pressure injuries. 59.Which lab result requires the nurse to hold a scheduled subcutaneous injection? a. Sodium 138
d. Increase the feeding volume Reducing the rate can improve tolerance and reduce GI upset. 63.When measuring blood pressure, which error leads to a false high reading? a. Arm above heart level b. Cuff too small for the arm c. Repeating reading immediately d. Cuff placed over clothing A small cuff squeezes the arm more, increasing the BP reading. 64.The nurse removes an IV and notices part of the catheter is missing. What is the priority action? a. Notify the provider b. Apply a tourniquet above the site c. Document the incident d. Restart the IV Applying a tourniquet prevents embolization of a broken catheter. 65.When applying PPE for airborne precautions, which order is correct? a. Gown, gloves, goggles, mask b. Gown, mask, goggles, gloves c. Mask, gown, gloves, goggles d. Gloves, gown, goggles, mask This sequence ensures full protection before exposure. 66.A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which item can be used to keep the field sterile? a. Moist gauze
b. Sterile drape c. Alcohol pad d. Clean towel Sterile drapes create and maintain a sterile workspace. 67.Which technique should the nurse use when collecting a wound culture? a. Swab the wound edges only b. Swab the center of the wound using sterile technique c. Irrigate with water before swabbing d. Use clean gloves for collection Sampling from the wound’s center provides the most accurate culture. 68.A nurse is preparing to change a colostomy pouch. Which step comes first? a. Apply skin barrier b. Gently remove the old pouch c. Cut the wafer to size d. Measure output Removing the old pouch allows assessment and cleaning before applying a new one. 69.When caring for a client with MRSA in a wound, which precaution is needed? a. Airborne b. Contact c. Droplet d. Reverse isolation