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ATI RN PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025 Q&A | INSTANT
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- A nurse is administering morphine to a client. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as a priority? A. Nausea B. Urinary retention C. Respiratory rate D. Blood pressure Morphine can cause respiratory depression; monitoring respiratory rate is the priority.
- A client is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings indicates digoxin toxicity? A. Hypertension B. Diarrhea C. Visual disturbances D. Bradycardia Visual disturbances such as seeing halos are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity.
- A nurse is teaching about albuterol. Which of the following is a common side effect? A. Bradycardia B. Hypoglycemia C. Tachycardia D. Constipation Albuterol stimulates beta2 receptors, which can cause tachycardia.
- A client is receiving warfarin. Which lab value should be monitored? A. aPTT B. Platelets C. INR D. Hemoglobin INR is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin.
- A nurse is caring for a client taking phenytoin. What is an expected finding? A. Gingival hyperplasia B. Weight loss C. Constipation D. Hearing loss Phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia as a side effect.
- A client is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor? A. Hypernatremia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia
10.A client receiving lithium should avoid: A. Low-sodium diet B. High-sodium diet C. Foods high in calcium D. Vitamin D supplements High sodium intake reduces lithium levels; clients need consistent sodium intake. 11.Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy? A. Isotretinoin B. Acetaminophen C. Amoxicillin D. Insulin Isotretinoin is teratogenic and highly contraindicated in pregnancy. 12.A client on heparin has a platelet count of 90,000/mm³. What should the nurse suspect? A. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) B. Bleeding disorder C. Liver failure D. Iron deficiency HIT is a serious complication of heparin therapy; platelets must be monitored. 13.Which side effect is associated with the ACE inhibitor lisinopril? A. Constipation
B. Tachycardia C. Dry cough D. Diarrhea ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to bradykinin buildup. 14.What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity? A. Vitamin K B. Acetylcysteine C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Deferoxamine Acetylcysteine protects the liver from damage due to acetaminophen overdose. 15.A client prescribed prednisone should be monitored for: A. Weight loss B. Hyperglycemia C. Bradycardia D. Hypotension Prednisone increases blood glucose levels and can cause hyperglycemia. 16.A nurse should question a prescription for metformin in a client with: A. Hypothyroidism B. Renal insufficiency C. Hypertension D. Obesity
A. Glucose B. Potassium C. Liver enzymes D. Amylase Methotrexate is hepatotoxic and requires monitoring of liver function. 21.What is an adverse effect of clozapine? A. Agranulocytosis B. Hypertension C. Tinnitus D. Hyperglycemia Clozapine can cause life-threatening agranulocytosis; WBC count must be monitored. 22.A client is receiving atorvastatin. The nurse should report: A. Headache B. Fatigue C. Muscle pain D. Increased appetite Statins can cause myopathy, which may progress to rhabdomyolysis. 23.Which medication interacts dangerously with sildenafil? A. Nitroglycerin B. Furosemide C. Acetaminophen
D. Lisinopril Combining nitrates with sildenafil can cause severe hypotension. 24.A nurse should include which instruction for a client taking levothyroxine? A. Take on an empty stomach in the morning B. Take with food C. Take at bedtime D. Take with iron supplements Levothyroxine must be taken in the morning, on an empty stomach for full absorption. 25.What is the priority adverse effect of amiodarone? A. Tachycardia B. Pulmonary toxicity C. Headache D. Constipation Amiodarone can cause serious, irreversible lung damage. 26.A client taking rifampin should be told: A. Body fluids may turn orange B. It causes constipation C. Take with antacids D. Limit sun exposure Rifampin turns urine, sweat, and tears orange; this is harmless but alarming to clients. 27.A nurse should include which instruction for a client taking alendronate? A. Sit upright for 30 minutes after taking
31.Which medication can cause ototoxicity? A. Cephalexin B. Furosemide C. Tetracycline D. Spironolactone High doses of furosemide can damage hearing. 32.Which lab should be checked before starting atorvastatin? A. BUN B. Liver function tests C. CBC D. Glucose Statins are hepatotoxic; baseline liver function is essential. 33.What should be monitored when administering mannitol? A. Urine output B. Heart rate C. Glucose level D. Pupillary reaction Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic; urine output reflects effectiveness. 34.What is a side effect of levodopa/carbidopa? A. Constipation B. Dyskinesia C. Rash
D. Bradycardia Involuntary movements (dyskinesia) are a common side effect. 35.What should be avoided with phenelzine? A. Dairy products B. Tyramine-rich foods C. Protein D. Citrus fruits Tyramine causes hypertensive crisis when taken with MAOIs like phenelzine. 36.A nurse should monitor for what in a client taking spironolactone? A. Hypernatremia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; hyperkalemia is a risk. 37.Which drug is used in opioid overdose? A. Atropine B. Flumazenil C. Naloxone D. Protamine Naloxone reverses respiratory depression caused by opioids. 38.Which instruction is important when taking tetracycline? A. Avoid dairy products B. Take with iron
42.Which sign indicates hypoglycemia after insulin administration? A. Flushed skin B. Diaphoresis C. Dry mouth D. Constipation Sweating is a classic early sign of low blood glucose. 43.A client prescribed carbamazepine should be taught to: A. Avoid potassium B. Report fever or sore throat C. Take with antacids D. Take at bedtime Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression; monitor WBC. 44.A client receiving methyldopa should be monitored for: A. Tachycardia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Hypokalemia D. Cough Methyldopa can cause hemolytic anemia; monitor CBC. 45.What should be monitored with valproic acid? A. Glucose B. Liver enzymes C. BUN D. Platelets only Valproic acid can cause hepatotoxicity; monitor liver enzymes.
46.Which symptom suggests lithium toxicity? A. Headache B. Confusion C. Increased appetite D. Constipation Confusion, tremor, and poor coordination are signs of lithium toxicity. 47.A nurse should teach that glucocorticoids can cause: A. Hyponatremia B. Osteoporosis C. Hyperkalemia D. Anemia Long-term glucocorticoid use leads to bone demineralization. 48.What is a side effect of hydralazine? A. Reflex tachycardia B. Urinary retention C. Bradycardia D. Drowsiness Hydralazine can cause reflex tachycardia due to sudden vasodilation. 49.What is a concern when giving amphotericin B? A. Hypernatremia B. Nephrotoxicity C. Constipation D. Weight gain Amphotericin B is highly nephrotoxic; renal function must be monitored.
C. Tendon pain D. Cough Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin can cause tendon rupture. 54.A nurse is caring for a client on valacyclovir. Which lab value should be monitored? A. BUN and creatinine B. ALT and AST C. Glucose D. Platelets Valacyclovir can be nephrotoxic; renal function must be assessed. 55.Which finding is an expected adverse effect of isoniazid? A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Photosensitivity C. Tinnitus D. Weight gain Isoniazid depletes vitamin B6 and can cause peripheral neuropathy. 56.A nurse is caring for a client receiving methotrexate. What supplement reduces toxicity? A. Folic acid B. Iron C. Vitamin C D. Magnesium Folic acid minimizes adverse effects of methotrexate, such as mouth ulcers.
57.A nurse is administering alteplase. What is the priority assessment? A. Blood glucose B. Cardiac enzymes C. Bleeding D. Urine output Alteplase is a thrombolytic, so bleeding is the primary concern. 58.Which adverse effect should be monitored for in a client taking neostigmine? A. Hypertension B. Mydriasis C. Bradycardia D. Dry mouth Neostigmine increases acetylcholine, which can cause bradycardia. 59.A nurse is monitoring a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding requires intervention? A. Drowsiness B. Respiratory rate 10/min C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes D. Warmth at IV site Respiratory depression is a serious adverse effect of magnesium toxicity. 60.Which of the following should the nurse monitor when a client is on clopidogrel? A. Bleeding B. Sodium levels
64.Which food should be avoided when taking levodopa? A. High-protein meals B. Citrus fruits C. Spicy foods D. Fatty foods High-protein diets can interfere with levodopa absorption. 65.What is a serious side effect of propylthiouracil? A. Hypertension B. Constipation C. Agranulocytosis D. Bradycardia PTU can severely suppress white blood cell production. 66.A nurse is caring for a client on dantrolene. What lab should be monitored? A. Potassium B. Liver enzymes C. Glucose D. Calcium Dantrolene can cause hepatotoxicity, so liver function should be checked. 67.What is a major concern with amphotericin B infusion? A. Diarrhea B. Insomnia C. Nephrotoxicity D. Bradycardia Amphotericin B is highly nephrotoxic and must be infused with caution.
68.What should be included in teaching about sucralfate? A. Take with meals B. Take on an empty stomach C. Take with milk D. Take with antacids Sucralfate works best on an empty stomach to coat ulcers. 69.Which lab value should be monitored with atorvastatin? A. ALT/AST B. INR C. aPTT D. Glucose Statins may increase liver enzymes; liver function tests are needed. 70.Which side effect is associated with metronidazole? A. Constipation B. Metallic taste C. Rash D. Drowsiness A metallic taste is a common but harmless side effect of metronidazole. 71.A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lactulose. Which finding indicates effectiveness? A. Decreased ammonia levels B. Decreased potassium C. Increased bowel sounds
