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This pediatric ATI RN exam is more than memorizing facts—it’s about applying knowledge in clinical scenarios. Our study material emphasizes critical thinking, interpretation of data, and prioritization skills. Through scenario-based questions and case studies, students learn to assess symptoms, apply nursing interventions, anticipate complications, and effectively communicate with children and their families. This practical focus ensures that you are not just passing the exam but are also confident in providing high-quality patient care. 2023 Peds ATI RN Proctored Exam, ATI RN pediatric exam 2023, pediatric nursing ATI RN study guide, ATI RN pediatrics practice questions 2023, ATI RN pediatric nursing test prep, ATI RN pediatric proctored exam review, pediatric nursing ATI practice test, ATI RN pediatric nursing questions and answers, 2023 ATI RN pediatrics exam review, ATI RN pediatric test bank 2023, pediatric ATI RN exam study materials, ATI RN pediatric clinical scenarios
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Which of the following findings would most strongly indicate that the child is experiencing NIGHTMARES rather than night terrors?
A. The child quickly returns to sleep and shows no recall of the incident in the morning. B. The child is agitated and thrashes during the event, with profuse sweating. C. The child does not respond to the parent's comfort during the event. D. The child awakens fully and can recall the frightening content of the dream.
Answer: D Expert Explanation: Children who experience nightmares typically awaken fully, remember the frightening dream, and can often be comforted by a caregiver. In contrast, a child who has night terrors is difficult to console, may scream or appear panicked, quickly returns to sleep afterward, and usually has no memory of the event.
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A. Elevated white blood cell count B. pH of 7.50 indicating possible respiratory alkalosis C. Oxygen saturation of 89% despite supplemental oxygen D. Presence of increased wheezing on auscultation
Answer: C Expert Explanation: An oxygen saturation of 89% despite supplemental oxygen is a critical finding because it indicates the child is not adequately oxygenating and might be progressing into more severe respiratory compromise. While the other findings also warrant reporting, low oxygen saturation takes priority.
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Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify before administering?
A. Furosemide IV bolus B. Enalapril PO C. Potassium chloride PO D. Digoxin PO
Answer: C Expert Explanation: Wide QRS complexes and peaked T waves can be indicative of hyperkalemia. Administering additional potassium (such as potassium chloride) could worsen hyperkalemia and place the child at risk for life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate including in the plan of care?
A. Obtain a capillary blood lead level. B. Prepare the child for a sweat chloride test. C. Schedule a barium enema. D. Limit fluid intake to reduce pulmonary congestion.
Answer: B Expert Explanation: A sweat chloride test is the definitive diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis. The test measures the amount of chloride in the sweat; levels above a certain threshold indicate cystic fibrosis. Barium enema and lead levels are not priority tests for this condition, and fluid restriction is not indicated.
A. 1 capsule B. 2 capsules C. 3 capsules D. 4 capsules
A. Diarrhea-related dehydration B. Pyloric stenosis C. Hirschsprung’s disease D. Intussusception
Answer: C Expert Explanation: Ribbon-like, foul-smelling stools, abdominal distension, and a palpable fecal mass raise concern for Hirschsprung’s disease (congenital aganglionic megacolon). Lethargy and elevated blood pressure may also be present due to discomfort or systemic stress.
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A. “I should use hot water to ensure the skin is cleaned thoroughly.” B. “I should wash clothing in strong detergents to remove all pathogens.” C. “I should apply an emollient immediately after bathing.” D. “I should leave my child’s nails untrimmed, so I can see if scratching occurs.”
Answer: C Expert Explanation: Applying an emollient (moisturizer) immediately after bathing prevents transepidermal water loss and helps keep the skin hydrated. Using mild detergents, lukewarm water, and keeping nails trimmed also helps prevent flare-ups.
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A. 1 mL B. 2 mL C. 3 mL D. 5 mL
Answer: B Expert Explanation: Convert 17.6 lb to kg: 17.6 lb ÷ 2.2 ≈ 8 kg. Then 5 mg/kg = 5 × 8 = 40 mg. Next, 40 mg ÷ 100 mg × 5 mL = 2 mL.
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A. Wheat bread B. Barley broth C. Rye crackers D. Plain white rice
Answer: D Expert Explanation: White rice is acceptable in a gluten-free diet. Children with celiac disease must avoid foods containing gluten, such as wheat, barley, and rye.
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Expert Explanation: Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory distress in infants, indicating increased work of breathing. This finding requires prompt intervention to prevent further deterioration.
A. Check the child’s respiratory rate and effort. B. Transport the child immediately to the emergency department. C. Encourage the child to drink water. D. Place the child on NPO status for 12 hours.
Answer: A Expert Explanation: Immediately following a seizure, the priority is to assess airway and breathing. If the child is not breathing adequately, the nurse must provide rescue breaths or initiate further emergency measures.
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A. Occupational therapist B. Speech therapist C. Physical therapist D. Recreational therapist
Answer: B
Expert Explanation: A speech therapist is essential for a child who has had a cleft palate repair to support articulation and speech development. Early intervention helps prevent future speech delays.
Which of the following activities is MOST appropriate to promote the child's psychosocial and developmental needs?
A. A group board game with multiple friends visiting at once B. Providing crayons and coloring books for self-expression C. Offering the child a shallow water table for play therapy D. Giving the child an age-appropriate adventure book to read
Answer: D Expert Explanation: A school-age child can engage in reading to stimulate imagination and maintain developmentally appropriate cognitive activity. Group gatherings or water-play activities could expose the child to infection or are less developmentally engaging compared to a stimulating book.
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A. Hypertension B. Flank pain
B. For 24 hours after initiation of antibiotics C. For 48 hours after antibiotics are discontinued D. Until discharge from the facility
Answer: B Expert Explanation: Droplet precautions should remain in place for at least 24 hours following the initiation of antimicrobial therapy to reduce the risk of disease transmission to others.
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Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to reduce infection risk?
A. Apply a sterile gauze dressing changed every 72 hours. B. Use a semipermeable transparent dressing to cover the site. C. Cleanse the insertion site weekly with only sterile water. D. Flush the catheter with tap water after medication administration.
Answer: B Expert Explanation: A semipermeable transparent dressing allows for continuous visual inspection of the site and provides an effective barrier against contamination. Proper site cleansing before dressing changes and using sterile techniques are also crucial to reduce infection risk.
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Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Encourage the child to ambulate in the hallway twice daily. B. Prepare the child for peritoneal dialysis. C. Initiate seizure precautions for the child. D. Restrict potassium-rich foods from the child’s diet.
Answer: C Expert Explanation: A sodium level of 129 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which places the child at risk for neurological dysfunction and seizures. Implementing seizure precautions is a priority to ensure safety, given the child’s confusion and low serum sodium.
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Which of the following statements by the guardian indicates correct understanding?
A. Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg B. Respiratory rate 45/min C. Heart rate 90/min D. Temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Answer: B Expert Explanation: The expected respiratory rate for a 3-year-old is roughly 20 to 25 breaths per minute. A rate of 45/min is above the normal range and can indicate respiratory distress or dysfunction, warranting immediate evaluation.
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To evaluate for anemia, the nurse should review which of the following laboratory values?
A. Platelet count B. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level C. Neutrophil count D. Serum electrolytes
Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Hemoglobin and hematocrit are primary indicators of anemia. Chemotherapy often suppresses bone marrow activity, reducing red blood cell production and leading to decreased hemoglobin levels.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
A. “Pulmonary function tests will be performed every 2 to 4 years.” B. “Pulmonary function tests will be performed every 12 to 24 months.” C. “Your child will only need a peak flow meter at home, not in the clinic.” D. “Once symptoms improve, these tests are no longer necessary.”
Answer: B Expert Explanation: Children with moderate persistent asthma should have pulmonary function tests every 12 to 24 months to evaluate lung function and the response to therapy. This helps guide potential adjustments in treatment.
A. Sunken anterior fontanel B. Capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds
C. Left arm paresthesia D. Tarry black stools
Answer: B Expert Explanation: Peritonitis, or inflammation of the peritoneum, can lead to reduced bowel motility (ileus) and fluid accumulation, resulting in abdominal distention. Other signs include fever, chills, and irritability.
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A. Soft, low-pitched murmur over the aortic area B. Loud, harsh murmur best heard at the left sternal border C. Bounding peripheral pulses in the lower extremities D. Muffled heart sounds at the apex
Answer: B Expert Explanation: A VSD commonly presents with a loud, harsh murmur at the left sternal border due to left-to-right shunting of blood across the septal defect.
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Which of the following findings is the PRIORITY for the nurse to report?
A. Substernal retractions B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) C. Pulse rate of 150/min D. Slight mottling on the chest
Answer: A Expert Explanation: Using the airway-breathing-circulation (ABC) approach, increased work of breathing (e.g., substernal retractions) indicates possible respiratory distress. This finding must be reported and addressed immediately to prevent respiratory failure.
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A. Index finger B. Earlobe C. Great toe D. Abdomen
Answer: C Expert Explanation: For an infant, securing the pulse oximeter sensor to the great toe (followed by covering the foot with a sock) is recommended to keep the probe in place. The nurse should check the skin periodically for complications and accurate readings.
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