ATI RN leadership retake.pdf, Exams of Nursing

Download ATI RN leadership retake.pdf and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

ATI RN LEADERSHIP RETAKE

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

ATI RN LEADERSHIP RETAKE

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

a- Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task. b- Ask the UAP to use some of the pillows to prop the client in a side lying position. Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankest because the use of pillows could result in suffocation and would need to be removed at the onset of the seizure. The nurse can delegate paddling the side rails to the UAP

4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up? a- Describes life without purpose b- Complains of nausea and loss of appetite c- States is often fatigued and drowsy d- Exhibits an increase in sweating. Rationale: Cymbalta is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor that is known to increase the risk of suicidal thinking in adolescents and young adults with major depressive disorder. B, C and D are side effects

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client‟s teaching plan? a- Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed b- A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out c- Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six month d- One additional negative pap smear in six months is needed. Rationale: An abdominal mass in a client with a family history for ovarian cancer should be evaluated carefully 6. A client who recently underwear a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan? a- Explain how to use communication tools. b- Teach tracheal suctioning techniques c- Encourage self-care and independence. d- Demonstrate how to clean tracheostomy site. Rationale: Suctioning helps to clear secretions and maintain an open airway, which is critical.

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

Rationale: After the client falls, the nurse should immediately assess for the possibility of injuries and provide first aid as needed

9. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a schedule repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup a coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first? a- Ensure preoperative lab results are available b- Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer‟s c- Inform the anesthesia care provider d- Contact the client‟s obstetrician. Rationale: Surgical preoperative instruction includes NPO after midnight the day of surgery to decrease the risk of aspiration should vomiting occur during anesthesia. While it is possible the C-section will be done on schedule or rescheduled for later in the day, the anesthesia provider should be notified first. 10. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first?

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

a- Side the stethoscope across the sternum. b- Move the stethoscope to the mitral site c- Listen with the bell at the same location d- Observe the cardiac telemetry monitor Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. The nurse listens at the same site using the diaphragm the diaphragm and bell before moving systematically to the next sites.

11. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have a health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs? a- Woman, Infant, and Children program b- Medicaid c- Medicare d- Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision. Rationale: Title XVII of the social security Act of 1965 created Medicare Program to provide medical insurance for person more than 65 years or older, disable or with permeant kidney failure, WIC provides

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

a- ―I am having pain in my lower back when I move my legs‖ b- ―My throat hurts when I swallow‖ c- ―I feel sick to my stomach and am going to throw up” d- I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up” Rationale: A post-lumbar puncture headache, ranging from mild to severe, may occur as a result of leakage of cerebrospinal fluid at the puncture site. This complication is usually managed by bedrest, analgesic, and hydration.

14. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement? a- Auscultate for renal bruits b- Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen c- Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketone d- Begin to strain the client‟s urine. Rationale: This elderly is experiencing symptoms of urinary tract infection. The nurse should obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen to determine the causative agent so an anti-infective agent can be prescribed. 15. The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child‟s dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child? a- Wheat products b- Foods sweetened with aspartame. c- High fat foods d- High calories foods. Rationale: Aspartame should not be consumed by a child with PKU because ut is converted to phenylalanine in the body. Additionally, milk and milk products are contraindicated for children with PKU.

16. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3 - minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide? a- Ask a more experience nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day b- Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub c- Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

excessive fiber.

18. The charge nurse of a critical care unit is informed at the beginning of the shift that less than the optimal number of registered nurses will be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse (RN)? a- A 34 - year - old admitted today after an emergency appendendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter. b- A 48 - year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter who is experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race. c- A 63-year-old chain smoker admitted with chronic bronchitis who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and has a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter. d- An 82 - year-old client with Alzheimer‟s disease newly-fractures femur who has a Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied Rationale: (D) describe the client at the most risk for injury and complications because of the factor listed. (A) has complete the recovery period form anesthesia but requires critical care because of the invasive lines and new abdominal incision. (B) is likely to be in excellent

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

physical condition and has one invasive line needed for rehydration. (C) is essentially stable, despite having a chronic condition.

19. Z a- Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment b- Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours. c- have the mother check the child's temperature q4h for the next 24 hours d- transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection Rationale: The nurse should cleanse the wound first and implement B next. 20. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, “My son has athlete‟s foot, I have been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no improvement.” What instruction should the nurse provide? a- Antibiotics take two weeks to become effective against infections such

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

d- Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin Rationale: An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating and diarrhea.

22. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a nausea, vomiting, yellow vision and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess to the client? a- Determine the client‟s level of orientation and cognition b- Assess distal pulses and signs of peripheral edema c- Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history. d- Ask the client about exposure to environmental heat. Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of digitalis toxicity. A list of medication, which is likely to include digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure, can direct further assessment in validating digitalis toxicity with serum labels greater than 2 mg/ml that is contributing to client‟s presenting clinical picture. 23. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only.) a- 75 Rationale: Convert mg to mcg and use the formula D/H x Q. 300 mcg/hour / 1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 3/1 x 25 = 75 ml/hour

24. The pathophysiological mechanisms are responsible for ascites related to liver failure? (Select all that apply) a- Bleeding that results from a decreased production of the body‟s clotting factors b- Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein c- Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen d- Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention e- Decreased absorption of fatty acids in the duodenum leading to abdominal distention. Rationale: When liver fail production of albumin is reduced. Since

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administered for each dose? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth) a- 0. Rationale: 35mg/100mg x 1 = 0.35 = 0.4 ml

27. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete? a- Auscultate the client's bowel sounds b- Observe for edema around the ankles c- Measure the client‟s capillary glucose level d- Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously Rationale: hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that slows peristalsis and frequently causes constipation, so it is most important to Auscultate the client's bowel sounds 28. A female client is admitted with end stage pulmonary disease is alert, oriented, and complaining of shortness of breath. The client

New!!) A++ All Q&As Included!!

tells the nurse that she wants “no heroic measures” taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement? a- Ask the client to discuss ―do not resuscitate‖ with her healthcare provider

29. A client is receiving a full strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement? a- Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50ml/hour b- Continue the full strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hr. c- Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and the begin the next new prescription. d- Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with healthcare provides. Rationale: Diluting the formula can help alleviate the diarrhea. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can