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ATI Renal + Urinary System Practice
Questions and Answers 202 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the oliguric-anuric stage of acute kidney injury. The client reports diarrhea, a dull headache, palpitations, and muscle tingling and weakness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Administer an analgesic to the client B. Check the client's electrolyte values C. Measure the client's weight D. Restrict the client's protein intake - ✔️ Correct Answer: B. Check the client's electrolyte values
The nurse should apply the urgent versus nonurgent priority-setting framework when caring for the client. Using this framework, the nurse should consider urgent needs to be the priority because they pose a greater threat to the client. The nurse might also need to use Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the ABC priority-setting framework, and/or nursing knowledge to identify which finding is the most urgent. The nurse should check the client's most recent potassium value because these findings are manifestations of hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Incorrect Answers:A. Administering an analgesic for a dull headache is important to manage the client's pain; however, there is another action that the nurse should take first. C. Measuring the client's weight is important to monitor the client's fluid balance; however, there is another action the nurse should take first. D. Restricting the client's protein intake is important to manage the client's acute kidney injury; however, there is another action the nurse should take first.
A nurse is assessing a client who has urolithiasis and reports pain in his thigh. This finding indicates the stone is in which of the following structures? A. Ureter B. Bladder C. Renal pelvis D. Renal tubules - ✔️ Correct Answer: A. Ureter
When stones are in the ureters, pain radiates to the genitalia and to the thighs.
Incorrect Answers:B. Stones in the bladder produce manifestations of irritation that resemble a urinary tract infection. They can also cause pain in the vulva and scrotal areas. C. The renal pelvis is part of the kidney. Stones in the kidneys cause pain in the costovertebral region. D. The renal tubules are within the nephron, which is part of the kidney. Stones in the kidneys cause flank pain
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse finds the following laboratory test results: potassium 6.8 mEq/L, calcium 7.4 mg/dL, hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL, and phosphate 4.8 mg/dL. Which finding is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Anemia D. Hypoalbuminemia - ✔️ Correct Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
The nurse should apply the urgent versus nonurgent priority-setting framework when caring for this client. Using this framework, the nurse should consider urgent needs the priority need because they pose more of a threat to the client. The nurse may also need to use Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the ABC priority-setting framework, and/or nursing knowledge to identify which finding is the most urgent. Hyperkalemia, which can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider. Incorrect Answers: A. Hypocalcemia is an expected finding with CKD; therefore, another finding is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider. The decreased calcium level would require reporting if the client developed muscle spasms or twitching. C. Anemia is an expected finding with CKD; therefore, another finding is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider. D. Hyperphosphatemia is an expected finding with CKD; therefore, another finding is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. WBC 6,000/mm^ B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L C. Clear, pale yellow drainage D. Report of abdominal fullness - ✔️ Correct Answer: B.
Decreased urine output - ✔️ Correct Answer: D. Decreased urine output
A decrease in urine output after TURP indicates an obstruction to urine flow by a clot or residual prostatic tissue and should be reported to the provider. Incorrect Answers:A. Pink-tinged urine and blood clots are expected findings for several days following a TURP. B. Burning with urination and urinary frequency are expected findings after a TURP and should decrease after several days. C. Stress incontinence is an expected finding following a TURP due to poor sphincter control.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which of the following client statements indicates the need for additional teaching? A. "I will empty my bladder every 4 hours." B. "I will drink 2 L of fluids per day." C. "I will use a vaginal douche daily." D. "I will wear cotton underwear." - ✔️ Correct Answer: C. "I will use a vaginal douche daily."
The client should avoid vaginal douches, bubble baths, and any substances that can increase the risk of UTIs. The client should use mild soap and water to wash the perineal area. Incorrect Answers:A. The client should empty her bladder every 4 hours to prevent urinary stasis, which can cause UTIs. B. The client should maintain a daily fluid intake of 2 to 3 L to flush the kidneys and prevent urinary stasis. D. The client should wear loose-fitting cotton (not nylon) underwear to prevent irritation.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is preoperative for a renal biopsy. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "You will be NPO for 8 hr following the procedure." B. "An allergy to shellfish is a contraindication to this procedure." C. "You will need to be on bed rest following the procedure." D. "A creatinine clearance is needed prior to the procedure." - ✔️ Correct Answer: C. "You will need to be on bed rest following the procedure."
A renal biopsy involves a tissue biopsy through needle insertion into the lower lobe of the kidney. The client should maintain bed rest in a supine position with a back roll for support for 2 to 24 hours following the procedure to reduce the risk of bleeding. The nurse can elevate the head of the bed. Incorrect Answers:A. The client will be NPO for 4 to 8 hours prior to the procedure; however, food and fluids can resume following the procedure. B. An allergy to shellfish is not a contraindication to this procedure because contrast media is not used. D. Because of the risk for post-procedural bleeding, preliminary lab tests include coagulation studies such as platelet count and prothrombin time. Tests for anemia are also done to evaluate whether a pre-procedural blood transfusion is needed. Creatinine clearance is not required.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) and has continuous bladder irrigation. The nurse notes no drainage in the client's urinary drainage bag over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Instruct the client to attempt to void around the indwelling urinary catheter B. Increase the rate of irrigation fluid instillation C. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter with a syringe D. Prepare to administer a diuretic - ✔️ Correct Answer: C. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter with a syringe
No drainage in the urinary drainage bag indicates an obstruction. The nurse should gently irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter as prescribed to clear the obstruction and allow urine and irrigating fluid to drain. Incorrect Answers:A. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid trying to urinate around the urinary catheter because this can cause bladder spasms. B. The nurse should not increase the rate of the irrigation fluid because no drainage in the urinary drainage bag indicates an obstruction of the indwelling urinary catheter. Increasing the rate of instillation can put additional pressure on the client's bladder. D. The nurse should not administer a diuretic to the client because no drainage in the urinary drainage bag indicates an obstruction of the indwelling urinary catheter.
A nurse is assessing a client who has acute kidney injury (AKI). According to the RIFLE classification system, which of the following findings indicates that the client has end-stage kidney disease? A. <0.5 mL/kg of urine output for 12 hr B. No urine output for 12 hr C. No urine output without renal replacement therapy for 4 to 12 weeks D.
D.
Urinary output 100 mL/hr - ✔️ Correct Answer: A. Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg
Due to the kidneys' role in fluid and blood pressure regulation, a client who is experiencing rejection can have hypertension. Incorrect Answers:B. Manifestations of acute kidney rejection can include an increase in serum creatinine. This finding is within the expected reference range. C. Manifestations of acute kidney rejection can include an increase in sodium. This finding is within the expected reference range. D. Manifestations of acute kidney rejection can include decreased urine output, anuria, oliguria (<30 mL/hr), and weight gain.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client reports significant persistent nausea and muscle weakness. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Hypernatremia B. Hypomagnesemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkalemia - ✔️ Correct Answer: D. Hyperkalemia
A client who has chronic kidney disease can have hyperkalemia, which is a potassium level greater than 5.0 mEq/L. The expected reference range for potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Other manifestations of hyperkalemia can include palpitations, dysrhythmias, nausea, and muscle weakness. Incorrect Answers:A. Hypernatremia is indicated by a sodium level greater than 145 mEq/L. The expected reference range for sodium is 136 to 145 mEq/L. Manifestations of hypernatremia include dry mucous membranes, agitation, thirst, hyperreflexia, and convulsions. It is not associated with chronic kidney disease. B. Hypomagnesemia is indicated by a magnesium level below 1.3 mEq/L. The expected reference range for magnesium is 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L. Hypomagnesemia is present in clients who have hyperthyroidism or diabetes and in clients who are pregnant. It is not associated with chronic kidney disease. C. Hypercalcemia is indicated by a calcium level greater than 10.5 mg/dL. The expected reference range for calcium is 9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL. Hypercalcemia is present with some cancers, but it is not associated with chronic kidney disease.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is preoperative prior to a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I will not need to have a urinary catheter following this procedure." B.
"I will expect my urine to be cloudy after having this procedure." C. "At least I won't have leakage of urine after having this procedure." D. "I will feel the urge to urinate following this procedure." - ✔️ Correct Answer: D. "I will feel the urge to urinate following this procedure."
After a TURP, the client will feel the urge to urinate. The nurse should reassure him that he will receive analgesics to help relieve this discomfort. Incorrect Answers:A. The client will require an indwelling urinary catheter following a TURP to monitor urine output and bleeding. B. Cloudy urine can be a manifestation of retrograde ejaculation or infection. The client should report cloudy urine to the provider. C. The client might have temporary dribbling and leakage of urine following a TURP. The nurse should reassure the client that these manifestations will resolve.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching a client who has late-stage chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following nutrients should the nurse instruct the client to increase in her diet? A. Calcium B. Phosphorous C. Potassium D. Sodium - ✔️ Correct Answer: A. Calcium
A client who has CKD can develop hypocalcemia due to the reduced production of active vitamin D, which is needed for calcium absorption. The client should supplement dietary calcium. Incorrect Answers:B. A client who has CKD can develop hyperphosphatemia because excretion of phosphorous by the kidneys is reduced. C. A client who has CKD can develop hyperkalemia because excretion of potassium by the kidneys is reduced. D. A client who has CKD can develop hypernatremia because excretion of sodium by the kidneys is reduced.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that the client's dialysate output is less than the input and that his abdomen is distended. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter B. Administer pain medication to the client C. Change the client's position
Prerenal azotemia results from interference with renal perfusion, such as from heart failure or hypovolemic shock. Incorrect Answers: A. Clients who have prerenal azotemia typically have tachycardia, lethargy, reduced urine output, and other manifestations. C. In early stages, reversal of prerenal azotemia is possible with correction of hypovolemia and improvement in blood pressure and cardiac output. D. Infections and ingested toxins cause intrarenal AKI, not prerenal azotemia.
A nurse is caring for a client who had a nephrostomy tube inserted 8 hours ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? A. Flush the nephrostomy tube every 4 hours with sterile water. B. Clamp the nephrostomy tube intermittently to establish continence. C. Check the skin at the nephrostomy site for irritation from urine leakage. D. Monitor for and report any blood-tinged drainage to the provider immediately. - ✔️ Correct Answer: C. Check the skin at the nephrostomy site for irritation from urine leakage.
The nurse should monitor the client for complications (e.g. bleeding, hematuria, fistula formation, infection), impairment of skin integrity (e.g. inflammation, infection, bleeding, urine leakage, irritation), and tube obstruction. The nurse should use the aseptic technique for dressing changes and encourage oral intake but should never clamp or irrigate the nephrostomy tube without a specific prescription to do so. Incorrect Answers: A. Routine irrigation of a nephrostomy tube is unnecessary; however, the nurse should notify the provider if the drainage stops, becomes cloudy, or has a foul odor. B. The nephrostomy tube relieves urine outflow obstruction; therefore, the nurse should never clamp it.
A nurse is providing teaching to a young adult client who has a history of calcium oxalate renal calculi. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "Drink fruit punch or juice with every meal." B. "Consume 1,000 mg of dietary calcium daily." C. "Take 1 g of a vitamin C supplement daily." D. "Increase your daily bran intake." - ✔️ Correct Answer: B. "Consume 1,000 mg of dietary calcium daily."
Clients who are prone to the development of calcium oxalate stones should consume the recommended daily allowance for calcium for their age. The RDA for calcium for
adults ages 19 to 50 is 1,000 mg daily. Calcium should be obtained from dietary sources rather than supplements that can promote the development of renal calculi. Incorrect Answers:A. Clients who are prone to renal calculi should limit beverages with a high sugar content such as fruit punch or juice because these beverages can promote the development of renal calculi. C. Clients who are prone to the development of calcium oxalate stones should avoid taking nutritional supplements, such as vitamin C. Taking 1 g of vitamin C daily can result in toxicity and promote the development of renal calculi. D. Clients who are prone to renal calculi should exclude bran from their diet because bran is high in oxalates, which can precipitate the formation of renal calculi.
A nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the emergency department following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of bladder trauma? A. Stress incontinence B. Hematuria C. Pyuria D. Fever - ✔️ Correct Answer: B. Hematuria
Manifestations of bladder trauma include hematuria, blood at the urinary meatus, pelvic pain, and anuria. Incorrect Answers:A. Leakage of urine during coughing, jogging, or lifting (also known as stress incontinence) is caused by weakened pelvic muscles. It is not a manifestation of bladder trauma. C. Pyuria (WBCs in the urine) is a manifestation of a urinary tract infection. It is not a manifestation of bladder trauma. D. A fever is a manifestation of an infection. It is not a manifestation of bladder trauma.
A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the surgical suite following a right nephrectomy. Which of the following indicates that the client is meeting a successful short-term goal following this procedure? A. The client requests pain medication upon arrival from surgery. B. A chest X-ray shows consolidation in the right lower lobe. C. Urinary output is 35 to 50 mL/hr consistently. D. The client has slight abdominal distention. - ✔️ Correct Answer: C. Urinary output is 35 to 50 mL/hr consistently.
electrolyte imbalances common with this disorder affect sodium and phosphorus levels. Chronic glomerulonephritis eventually leads to end-stage kidney disease. Incorrect Answers:A. The nurse should expect a client who has chronic glomerulonephritis with oliguria to have a calcium level at the lower end of or slightly below the expected reference range of 9 to 10.5 mg/dL. C. The nurse should expect a client who has chronic glomerulonephritis with oliguria to have a magnesium level within the expected reference range of 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L. The major electrolyte imbalances common with this disorder affect potassium, sodium, and phosphorus levels. D. The nurse should expect a client who has chronic glomerulonephritis with oliguria to have a phosphorous level above the expected reference range of 3 to 4.5 mg/dL.
A nurse is conducting dietary teaching with a client who has a history of renal calculi. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Consume foods containing vitamin C B. Drink 3.8 L (4 qt) of water throughout the day C. Suggest almonds as a snack D. Limit sodium intake to 3 g per day - ✔️ Correct Answer: B. Drink 3.8 L (4 qt) of water throughout the day
The nurse should instruct the client to drink 3.8 L of water per day to keep urine diluted and decrease the risk of kidney stone formation. Incorrect Answers:A. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid large amounts of vitamin C, which can increase the risk of kidney stone formation. C. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid high-oxalate foods like almonds or other types of nuts because they increase the risk of kidney stone formation. D. The nurse should instruct the client to limit sodium intake to 2 g per day. A high- sodium diet increases the risk of kidney stone formation.
A nurse is teaching a female client who has pyelonephritis about the disorder. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include to help the client prevent a recurrence? A. "Douche after vaginal intercourse." B. "Wipe from front to back after defecation." C. "Avoid foods that are high in phosphate." D. "Add yogurt to your diet regularly." - ✔️ Correct Answer: B. "Wipe from front to back after defecation."
Pyelonephritis is a bacterial infection of the kidney and renal pelvis. The nurse should instruct the client about the importance of wiping from front to back following
fecal elimination to avoid introducing bacteria into the urinary tract, which can ultimately cause pyelonephritis. Incorrect Answers:A. Most providers discourage routine douching. Regardless, this measure does not prevent renal infection. C. Avoiding an excessive intake of phosphate can help prevent some types of kidney stones, but it does not prevent renal infection. D. Eating yogurt with active cultures can help prevent genital tract infections, but it does not prevent renal infection.
A female client who has recurrent cystitis asks the nurse about preventing future episodes. For which of the following client statements should the nurse provide further teaching? A. "I drink at least 2 L of fluid per day." B. "I prefer taking tub baths to showering." C. "I urinate before and after sexual relations." D. "I wipe from front to back after urinating." - ✔️ Correct Answer: B. "I prefer taking tub baths to showering."
Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder lining that commonly occurs with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Women who are at risk for UTIs should avoid tub baths because they increase the risk of infection. The nurse should recommend taking showers instead of tub baths. Incorrect Answers: A. Staying well hydrated helps prevent urinary tract infections and bladder wall inflammation. C. Urinating prior to and following sexual intercourse helps prevent urinary tract infections. D. Wiping from front to back helps prevent fecal bacteria from contaminating the urethra and reduces the risk of urinary tract infections.
A nurse is teaching a client who is preoperative for a cystoscopy. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "You will need to keep the sutures clean after this procedure." B. "You will be placed on your left side for this procedure." C. "Expect to be on bed rest for 24 hr after this procedure." D. "Expect to have pink-tinged urine after this procedure." - ✔️ Correct Answer: D. "Expect to have pink-tinged urine after this procedure."
A cystoscopy is a procedure in which a scope is inserted into the urethra to diagnose or treat bladder problems. Following the procedure, pink-tinged urine is expected.
Incorrect Answers:B. A client who has CKD should increase caloric intake so that the body can use protein for protein synthesis instead of energy consumption. Using protein for energy can lead to a negative nitrogen balance and malnutrition. C. A client who has CKD should limit phosphorus intake because the kidneys are unable to excrete it. D. A client who has CKD should not eat excessive protein to prevent the build-up of protein waste products and uremia.
A nurse is caring for a client who has manifestations of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following a kidney transplantation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate for this client? (Select all that apply.) A. Hemodialysis B. Biopsy C. Immunosuppression D. Balloon angioplasty E. Surgical repair - ✔️ Correct Answers: A. Hemodialysis B. Biopsy C. Immunosuppression
Clients who develop ATN after transplantation surgery might need dialysis until they have an adequate urine output and their BUN and creatinine levels stabilize. Because the development of ATN after transplantation surgery mimics the symptoms of rejection of the transplanted kidney, clients have to undergo a biopsy to determine the correct diagnosis. Immunosuppressive medication therapy is essential after kidney transplantation to protect the new kidney. Incorrect Answers:D. Balloon angioplasty corrects renal artery stenosis, which is a potential complication of kidney transplantation. E. Surgery corrects several other complications of kidney transplantation such as graft rupture.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is developing dialysis disequilibrium syndrome (DDS)? A. Elevated BUN B. Bradycardia C. Headache D. Temperature 39.2°C (102.5°F) -
✔️ Correct Answer: C. Headache
DDS is a CNS disorder that can develop in clients who are new to dialysis due to the rapid removal of solutes and changes in the blood pH. Clients beginning hemodialysis are at greatest risk, particularly if their BUN is above 175. DDS causes headaches, nausea, vomiting, a decreased level of consciousness, seizures, and restlessness. When the condition is severe, clients progress to confusion, seizures, coma, and death. Incorrect Answers: A. An elevated BUN increases the client's risk of developing DDS; however, it is not a manifestation of this complication. B. A loss of body fluid activates the body's compensatory mechanisms. In this case, the rapid decrease in fluid volume after dialysis causes the heart to try to compensate by increasing the heart rate. Therefore, the client would have tachycardia, not bradycardia. D. An elevated temperature indicates a possible infection, which is a common risk for clients undergoing dialysis, not DDS.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the peritoneal fluid is not adequately draining. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Turn the client from side to side B. Elevate the height of the dialysate bag C. Lower the head of the client's bed D. Advance the catheter approximately 2.5 cm (1 in) further - ✔️ Correct Answer: A. Turn the client from side to side
The nurse should assist the client in turning from side to side to facilitate the removal of peritoneal drainage. This action helps ensure there are no kinks in the tubing or an air lock in the peritoneal catheter. Incorrect Answers:B. The nurse should raise the height of the dialysate bag to increase the rate of inflow; however, this action will not promote outflow of peritoneal fluid. C. The nurse should elevate the head of the client's bed to promote outflow of the peritoneal fluid. D. The nurse should not push the peritoneal catheter further into the peritoneal cavity because this action introduces bacteria into the peritoneal cavity and increases the client's risk of peritonitis.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who has a new left arteriovenous fistula. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "Check the fistula site daily for a vibration." B. "Instruct the client to restrict movement of his left arm."
Protein
Dietary restrictions for clients who have chronic kidney disease vary based on the degree of kidney function; however, most clients need protein limitations. Predialysis protein restriction can help preserve some kidney function. Incorrect Answers:B. Clients who have chronic kidney disease require enough calories to avoid the use of muscle protein for energy. Carbohydrates are a good source of calories for these clients. C. Many clients who have chronic kidney disease require calcium, vitamin D, and iron supplements. D. Clients who have chronic kidney disease require enough calories to avoid the use of muscle protein for energy. Foods like canola oil and olive oil are monounsaturated fats that can supply additional calories in the client's meals.
A nurse is teaching a client about urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include? A. Weight gain B. Back pain C. Vaginal discharge D. Muscle cramps - ✔️ Correct Answer: B. Back pain
Back pain and flank pain are manifestations of a UTI. Other manifestations include frequency, urgency, and cloudy, foul-smelling urine. Incorrect Answers:A. Weight gain is not a manifestation of a UTI because a UTI does not cause fluid retention. Weight gain can be a manifestation of acute kidney injury and fluid overload. C. Vaginal discharge is a manifestation of a vaginal infection, not a UTI. D. Muscle cramps can be a manifestation of uremia, not a UTI.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hr postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate and has an indwelling urinary catheter in place. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Blood-tinged urine in the drainage bag B. Catheter tubing coiled at the client's side C. Client report of severe bladder spams D. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr - ✔️ Correct Answer: A. Blood-tinged urine in the drainage bag
Blood-tinged urine in the drainage bag is an expected finding for the first 24 hours following surgery. Incorrect Answers:B. The catheter tubing should be free from kinks and coiling. The nurse should ensure the tubing is below the level of the bladder and allows urinary outflow. C. Severe bladder spasms might indicate an obstruction and should be reported to the provider. D. Urinary output of <30 mL/hr can indicate hypovolemia or renal complications; therefore, the nurse should notify the provider.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about collecting a 24-hr urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Include the first voided specimen at the start of the collection period B. Discard the last voided specimen at the end of the collection period C. Place signs in the bathroom as a reminder about the test in progress D. Instruct the client to increase exercise during the 24-hr period - ✔️ Correct Answer: C. Place signs in the bathroom as a reminder about the test in progress
The nurse should place signs in the bathroom and alert family members of the test in progress so that everyone saves the specimens appropriately throughout the test. Incorrect Answers:A. The nurse should have the client void first thing in the morning, discard the specimen, and collect all subsequent specimens for 24 hours. B. The nurse should include the last voided specimen at the end of the collection period. D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid vigorous exercise, meat, tea, and coffee during the 24-hour period.
A nurse is caring for a client who has continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. Output equal to the instilled irrigant B. Client report of bladder spasms C. Viscous urinary output with clots D. Client report of a strong urge to urinate - ✔️ Correct Answer: C. Viscous urinary output with clots
The nurse should report urine output that is bright red with clots or urine that resembles ketchup to the provider because this is an indication of arterial bleeding.
