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Pharmacology Exam Prep: 300 Q&A Test Bank 2025-2026, Exams of Pharmacology

Northeast Alabama Community College Pharmacology

A test bank featuring 300 pharmacology questions and answers with rationales. It addresses medication administration, drug effects, monitoring, adverse effects, and toxicity. The questions assess understanding of pharmacology concepts and their clinical application. Useful for students and healthcare professionals preparing for exams or enhancing medication management knowledge. Updated for 2025-2026, the test bank provides detailed rationales, facilitating a deeper understanding of pharmacology principles. Topics include drug interactions, contraindications, and patient education. This comprehensive tool helps master pharmacology and improve patient outcomes, promoting critical thinking and problem-solving for safe medication management.

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2024/2025

Available from 06/10/2025

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ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM

TESTBANK|2025-2026|300 QUESTIONS AND

ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES| LATEST UPDATE-

2025

1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level

is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client?

1. Calcium chloride

2. Calcium gluconate

3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)

4. Large doses of vitamin D

3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)

Rationale:

The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia.

Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs

as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided.

Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and

lowering the serum calcium concentration.

2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse

instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item?

1. Milk

2. Water

3. Apple juice

4. Orange juice

Rationale:

Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer

the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the

iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple

juice.

3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client,

knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this

medication?

1. Tinnitus

2. Diarrhea

3. Constipation

4. Decreased respirations

1. Tinnitus

Rationale:

Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms

Partial preview of the text

Download Pharmacology Exam Prep: 300 Q&A Test Bank 2025-2026 and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity!

ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM

TESTBANK|2025- 2026 |300 QUESTIONS AND

ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES| LATEST UPDATE-

A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client?

Calcium chloride
Calcium gluconate
Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
Large doses of vitamin D
Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration. 2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6 - year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item?
Milk
Water
Apple juice
Orange juice
Orange juice Rationale: Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice. 3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication?
Tinnitus
Diarrhea
Constipation
Decreased respirations
Tinnitus Rationale: Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms

include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism. 4.) The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied:

Immediately before swimming
15 minutes before exposure to the sun
Immediately before exposure to the sun
At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun
At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun Rationale: Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating. 5.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
Notifying the registered nurse
Discontinuing the medication
Informing the client that this is normal
Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site
Informing the client that this is normal Rationale: Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic for gram-negative and gram-positive organisms and is used to treat burns to reduce bacteria present in avascular tissues. The client should be informed that the medication will cause local discomfort and burning and that this is a normal reaction; therefore options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect 6.) The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred? 1.Hyperventilation 2.Elevated blood pressure 3.Local pain at the burn site 4.Local rash at the burn site 1.Hyperventilation Rationale: Mafenide acetate is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and can suppress renal excretion of acid, thereby causing acidosis. Clients receiving this treatment should be monitored for signs of an acid-base imbalance (hyperventilation). If this occurs, the medication should be discontinued for 1 to 2 days. Options 3 and 4 describe local rather than systemic effects. An elevated blood pressure may be expected from the pain that occurs with a burn injury.

Eczema
Hair loss
Herpes simplex
Acne Rationale: Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 11.) The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial- thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments?
"The medication is an antibacterial."
"The medication will help heal the burn."
"The medication will permanently stain my skin."
"The medication should be applied directly to the wound."
"The medication will permanently stain my skin." Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against gram- negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound to assist in healing. It does not stain the skin. 12.) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate of infusion of the medication has slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action?
Notify the registered nurse.
Administer pain medication to reduce the discomfort.
Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed.
Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion.
Notify the registered nurse. Rationale: When antineoplastic medications (Chemotheraputic Agents) are administered via IV, great care must be taken to prevent the medication from escaping into the tissues surrounding the injection site, because pain, tissue damage, and necrosis can result. The nurse monitors for signs of extravasation, such as redness or swelling at the insertion site and a decreased infusion rate. If extravasation occurs, the registered nurse needs to be notified; he or she will then contact the health care provider. 13.) The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed?
Echocardiography

Electrocardiography
Cervical radiography
Pulmonary function studies
Pulmonary function studies Rationale: Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication (Chemotheraputic Agents) that can cause interstitial pneumonitis, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function studies along with hematological, hepatic, and renal function tests need to be monitored. The nurse needs to monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and crackles, which indicate pulmonary toxicity. The medication needs to be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to the specific use of this medication. 14.) The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication?
Clotting time
Uric acid level
Potassium level
Blood glucose level
Uric acid level Rationale: Busulfan (Myleran) can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemia can produce uric acid nephropathy, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically related to this medication. 15.) The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse who is assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication?
Alopecia
Chest pain
Pulmonary fibrosis
Orthostatic hypotension
Orthostatic hypotension Rationale: A side effect specific to etoposide is orthostatic hypotension. The client's blood pressure is monitored during the infusion. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain and pulmonary fibrosis are unrelated to this medication. 16.) The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for the client receiving an antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse tells the client:
To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for headache
Drink beverages containing alcohol in moderate amounts each evening

19.) Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.
Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antineoplastic medication that competes with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Tamoxifen is used to treat metastatic breast carcinoma in women and men. Tamoxifen is also effective in delaying the recurrence of cancer following mastectomy. Tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response. 20.) The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?
Glucose level
Calcium level
Potassium level
Prothrombin time
Calcium level Rationale: Tamoxifen may increase calcium, cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. Before the initiation of therapy, a complete blood count, platelet count, and serum calcium levels should be assessed. These blood levels, along with cholesterol and triglyceride levels, should be monitored periodically during therapy. The nurse should assess for hypercalcemia while the client is taking this medication. Signs of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypotonicity of muscles, and deep bone and flank pain. 21.) A nurse is assisting with caring for a client with cancer who is receiving cisplatin. Select the adverse effects that the nurse monitors for that are associated with this medication. Select all that apply.
Tinnitus
Ototoxicity
Hyperkalemia
Hypercalcemia
Nephrotoxicity
Hypomagnesemia
Tinnitus
Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Hypomagnesemia

Rationale: Cisplatin is an alkylating medication. Alkylating medications are cell cycle phase-nonspecific medications that affect the synthesis of DNA by causing the cross-linking of DNA to inhibit cell reproduction. Cisplatin may cause ototoxicity, tinnitus, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and nephrotoxicity. Amifostine (Ethyol) may be administered before cisplatin to reduce the potential for renal toxicity. 22.) A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed to:

Treat thyroid storm.
Prevent cardiac irritability.
Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.
Treat hypocalcemic tetany. Rationale: Hypocalcemia can develop after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands are accidentally removed or injured during surgery. Manifestations develop 1 to 7 days after surgery. If the client develops numbness and tingling around the mouth, fingertips, or toes or muscle spasms or twitching, the health care provider is notified immediately. Calcium gluconate should be kept at the bedside. 23.) A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge?
Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times.
Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically.
Increase the amount of insulin before unusual exercise.
Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage.
Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically. Rationale: Insulin dosages should not be adjusted or increased before unusual exercise. If acetone is found in the urine, it may possibly indicate the need for additional insulin. To minimize the discomfort associated with insulin injections, the insulin should be administered at room temperature. Injection sites should be systematically rotated from one area to another. The client should be instructed to give injections in one area, about 1 inch apart, until the whole area has been used and then to change to another site. This prevents dramatic changes in daily insulin absorption. 24.) A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?
Withdraws the NPH insulin first
Withdraws the regular insulin first

Use of nitroglycerin
Use of multivitamins
Use of nitroglycerin Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide in the corpus cavernosum of the penis, thus sustaining an erection. Because of the effect of the medication, it is contraindicated with concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Sildenafil is not contraindicated with the use of vitamins. Neuralgia and insomnia are side effects of the medication. 28.) The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse knows that which of the following is the appropriate intervention?
The medication is administered within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the prescription for the client.
The client is monitored for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
The insulin is withdrawn from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.
The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the prescription for the client. Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is an incretin mimetic used for type 2 diabetes mellitus only. It is not recommended for clients taking insulin. Hence, the nurse should hold the medication and question the HCP regarding this prescription. Although options 1 and 3 are correct statements about the medication, in this situation the medication should not be administered. The medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up into another syringe. 29.) A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:
2 to 4 hours after administration
4 to 12 hours after administration
16 to 18 hours after administration
18 to 24 hours after administration
4 to 12 hours after administration Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. 30.) A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus previously had been well controlled with glyburide (DiaBeta) daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
Prednisone

Phenelzine (Nardil)
Atenolol (Tenormin)
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Prednisone Rationale: Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassium supplements. Option 2, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, and option 3, a β-blocker, have their own intrinsic hypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia. 31.) A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client and the nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?
"I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it."
"I need to take the medication every day at the same time."
"I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet."
"If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my doctor."
"I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." Rationale: Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with the health care provider (HCP). The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 lb or more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid-ulcer development. 32.) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
Decreased urinary output
Decreased blood pressure
Decreased peripheral edema
Decreased blood glucose level
Decreased urinary output Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water. The hormone carries out this action by acting on the collecting ducts of the kidney to increase their permeability to water, which results in increased water reabsorption. The therapeutic effect of this medication would be manifested by a decreased urine output. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the effects of this medication.

An episode of diarrhea
Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage
An episode of diarrhea Rationale: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent. It is used to manage acute and also chronic diarrhea in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease. Loperamide also can be used to reduce the volume of drainage from an ileostomy. It is not used for the conditions in options 1, 2, and 4. 36.) The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?
Paralytic ileus
Incisional pain
Urinary retention
Nausea and vomiting
Nausea and vomiting Rationale: Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The other options are incorrect. 37.) The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?
Weight loss
Relief of heartburn
Reduction of steatorrhea
Absence of abdominal pain
Reduction of steatorrhea Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme used in clients with pancreatitis as a digestive aid. The medication should reduce the amount of fatty stools (steatorrhea). Another intended effect could be improved nutritional status. It is not used to treat abdominal pain or heartburn. Its use could result in weight gain but should not result in weight loss if it is aiding in digestion. 38.) An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
Tremors
Dizziness
Confusion
Hallucinations

Confusion Rationale: Cimetidine is a histamine 2 (H2)-receptor antagonist. Older clients are especially susceptible to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent of these is confusion. Less common central nervous system side effects include headache, dizziness, drowsiness, and hallucinations. 39.) The client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which times?
With meals and at bedtime
Every 6 hours around the clock
One hour after meals and at bedtime
One hour before meals and at bedtime
One hour before meals and at bedtime Rationale: Sucralfate is a gastric protectant. The medication should be scheduled for administration 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. The medication is timed to allow it to form a protective coating over the ulcer before food intake stimulates gastric acid production and mechanical irritation. The other options are incorrect. 40.) The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?
Resolved diarrhea
Relief of epigastric pain
Decreased platelet count
Decreased white blood cell count
Relief of epigastric pain Rationale: The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is prone to gastric mucosal injury. Misoprostol is a gastric protectant and is given specifically to prevent this occurrence. Diarrhea can be a side effect of the medication, but is not an intended effect. Options 3 and 4 are incorrect. 41.) The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
Diarrhea
Heartburn
Flatulence
Constipation

44.) A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for possible use after giving this medication?

Ambu bag
Intubation tray
Nasogastric tube
Suction equipment
Suction equipment Rationale: Acetylcysteine can be given orally or by nasogastric tube to treat acetaminophen overdose, or it may be given by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. The nurse administering this medication as a mucolytic should have suction equipment available in case the client cannot manage to clear the increased volume of liquefied secretions. 45.) A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed. The nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this medication if the client states that he or she will:
Watch for irritability as a side effect.
Take the tablet with a full glass of water.
Take an extra dose if the cough is accompanied by fever.
Crush the sustained-release tablet if immediate relief is needed.
Take the tablet with a full glass of water. Rationale: Guaifenesin is an expectorant. It should be taken with a full glass of water to decrease viscosity of secretions. Sustained-release preparations should not be broken open, crushed, or chewed. The medication may occasionally cause dizziness, headache, or drowsiness as side effects. The client should contact the health care provider if the cough lasts longer than 1 week or is accompanied by fever, rash, sore throat, or persistent headache. 46.) A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:
Pupillary changes
Scattered lung wheezes
Sudden increase in pain
Sudden episodes of diarrhea
Sudden increase in pain Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may also be given to the postoperative client to treat respiratory depression. When given to the postoperative client for respiratory depression, it may

also reverse the effects of analgesics. Therefore, the nurse must check the client for a sudden increase in the level of pain experienced. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not associated with this medication. 47.) A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

Hypercalcemia
Peripheral neuritis
Small blood vessel spasm
Impaired peripheral circulation
Peripheral neuritis Rationale: A common side effect of the TB drug INH is peripheral neuritis. This is manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesias in the extremities. This side effect can be minimized by pyridoxine (vitamin B6) intake. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 48.) A client is to begin a 6 - month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to:
Drink alcohol in small amounts only.
Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.
Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses.
Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.
Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. Rationale: INH is hepatotoxic, and therefore the client is taught to report signs and symptoms of hepatitis immediately (which include yellow skin and sclera). For the same reason, alcohol should be avoided during therapy. The client should avoid intake of Swiss cheese, fish such as tuna, and foods containing tyramine because they may cause a reaction characterized by redness and itching of the skin, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, headache, or lightheadedness. The client can avoid developing peripheral neuritis by increasing the intake of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) during the course of INH therapy for TB. 49.) A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
Should always be taken with food or antacids
Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces Rationale:

Electrolyte levels
Coagulation times
Liver enzyme levels
Serum creatinine level
Liver enzyme levels Rationale: INH therapy can cause an elevation of hepatic enzyme levels and hepatitis. Therefore, liver enzyme levels are monitored when therapy is initiated and during the first 3 months of therapy. They may be monitored longer in the client who is greater than age 50 or abuses alcohol. 53.) Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select all that apply.
Signs of hepatitis
Flu-like syndrome
Low neutrophil count
Vitamin B6 deficiency
Ocular pain or blurred vision
Tingling and numbness of the fingers
Signs of hepatitis
Flu-like syndrome
Low neutrophil count
Ocular pain or blurred vision Rationale: Rifabutin (Mycobutin) may be prescribed for a client with active MAC disease and tuberculosis. It inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and suppresses protein synthesis. Side effects include rash, gastrointestinal disturbances, neutropenia (low neutrophil count), red-orange body secretions, uveitis (blurred vision and eye pain), myositis, arthralgia, hepatitis, chest pain with dyspnea, and flu-like syndrome. Vitamin B6 deficiency and numbness and tingling in the extremities are associated with the use of isoniazid (INH). Ethambutol (Myambutol) also causes peripheral neuritis. 54.) A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative client who is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further teaching?
"I will take my pills every day at the same time."
"I will be certain to avoid alcohol consumption."
"I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet."
"I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated."
"I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated." Rationale: Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should be avoided. Alcohol consumption should be avoided

by a client taking warfarin sodium. Taking prescribed medication at the same time each day increases client compliance. The Medic-Alert bracelet provides health care personnel emergency information. 55.) A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A health care provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

3 to 5 ng/mL
0.5 to 2 ng/mL
1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL 2.) 0.5 to 2 ng/mL Rationale: Therapeutic levels for digoxin range from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 56.) Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the health care provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication?
Hematocrit level
Hemoglobin level
Prothrombin time (PT)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) Rationale: The PT will assess for the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) and the aPTT will assess the therapeutic effect of heparin sodium. Heparin sodium doses are determined based on these laboratory results. The hemoglobin and hematocrit values assess red blood cell concentrations. 57.) A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?
The development of complaints of insomnia
The development of audible expiratory wheezes
A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication
The development of audible expiratory wheezes Rationale: Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm. β-Blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma.

Pharmacology Exam Prep: 300 Q&A Test Bank 2025-2026, Exams of Pharmacology

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Partial preview of the text

Download Pharmacology Exam Prep: 300 Q&A Test Bank 2025-2026 and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity!

ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM

TESTBANK|2025- 2026 |300 QUESTIONS AND

ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES| LATEST UPDATE-