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ATI MED-SURG PROCTORED EXAM TESTBANK LATEST REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADE A, Exams of Nursing

Get a significant edge on your ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam. This test bank features real exam questions and accurate answers, ensuring you're well-prepared for exam success.

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2024/2025

Available from 06/27/2025

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2025 ATI MED-SURG PROCTORED EXAM TESTBANK
LATEST REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADE A
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which question asked by the nurse will give the most information about the patient’s
metastatic bone cancer pain?
a.
“How long have you had this pain?”
b.
“How would you describe your pain?”
c.
“How much medication do you take for
the pain?”
d.
“How many times a day do you take
medication for the pain?”
ANS: B
2. A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch for chronic cancer pain suddenly complains of
rapid onset pain at a level 9 (0 to 10 scale) and requests “something for pain that will work now.”
How will the nurse document the type of pain reported by this patient?
a.
Somatic pain
b.
Referred pain
c.
Neuropathic pain
d.
Breakthrough pain
ANS: D
3. The nurse teaches a student nurse about the action of ibuprofen. Which statement, if made by
the student, indicates that teaching was effective?
a.
“The drug decreases pain impulses in the
spinal cord.”
b.
“The drug decreases sensitivity of the
brain to painful stimuli.”
c.
“The drug decreases production of
painsensitizing chemicals.”
d.
“The drug decreases the modulating effect
of descending nerves.
ANS: C
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Download ATI MED-SURG PROCTORED EXAM TESTBANK LATEST REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADE A and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

2025 ATI MED-SURG PROCTORED EXAM TESTBANK

LATEST REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

GRADE A

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. Which question asked by the nurse will give the most information about the patient’s metastatic bone cancer pain? a. (^) “How long have you had this pain?” b. (^) “How would you describe your pain?” c. (^) “How much medication do you take for the pain?” d. “How many times a day do you take medication for the pain?” ANS: B
  2. A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch for chronic cancer pain suddenly complains of rapid onset pain at a level 9 (0 to 10 scale) and requests “something for pain that will work now.” How will the nurse document the type of pain reported by this patient? a. (^) Somatic pain b. (^) Referred pain c. (^) Neuropathic pain d. (^) Breakthrough pain ANS: D
  3. The nurse teaches a student nurse about the action of ibuprofen. Which statement, if made by the student, indicates that teaching was effective? a. (^) “The drug decreases pain impulses in the spinal cord.” b. “The drug decreases sensitivity of the brain to painful stimuli.” c. (^) “The drug decreases production of painsensitizing chemicals.” d. (^) “The drug decreases the modulating effect of descending nerves.” ANS: C
  1. A nurse assesses a patient with chronic cancer pain who is receiving imipramine (Tofranil) in addition to long-acting morphine. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates to the nurse that the patient is receiving adequate pain control? a. (^) “I’m not anxious at all.” b. (^) “I sleep 8 hours every night.” c. “I feel much less depressed since I’ve been taking the Tofranil.” d. (^) “The pain is manageable and I can accomplish my desired activities. ANS: D
  2. A patient with chronic back pain has learned to control the pain with the use of imagery and hypnosis. The patient’s spouse asks the nurse how these techniques work. Which response by the nurse is best? a. (^) “The strategies work by affecting the perception of pain.” b. (^) “These techniques block the pain pathways of the nerves.” c. (^) “Both strategies prevent transmission of painful stimuli to the brain.” d. (^) “The therapies slow the release of chemicals in the spinal cord that cause pain.” ANS: A
  3. A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which action by the nurse is best? a. (^) Provide amitriptyline (Elavil) 10 mg orally. b. (^) Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally. c. (^) Offer ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 to 800 mg orally. d. Give immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally. ANS: D
  1. When visiting a hospice patient, the nurse assesses that the patient has a respiratory rate of 11 breaths/minute and complains of severe pain. Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. (^) Inform the patient that increasing the morphine will cause the respiratory drive to fail. b. Tell the patient that additional morphine can be administered when the respirations are 12. c. (^) Titrate the prescribed morphine dose upward until the patient indicates adequate pain relief. d. Administer a nonopioid analgesic, such as a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID), to improve patient pain control. ANS: C
  2. The nurse is completing the medication reconciliation form for a patient admitted with chronic cancer pain. Which medication is of most concern to the nurse? a. (^) Amitriptyline (Elavil) 50 mg at bedtime b. (^) Ibuprofen (Advil) 800 mg 3 times daily c. Oxycodone (OxyContin) 80 mg twice daily d. (^) Meperidine (Demerol) 25 mg every 4 hours ANS: D
  3. The nurse reviews the medication administration record in order to choose the most appropriate pain medication for a patient with cancer who describes the pain as “deep, aching and at a level 8 on a 0 to 10 scale”. Which medication should the nurse administer? a. (^) Fentanyl (Duragesic) patch b. (^) Ketorolac (Toradol) tablets c. (^) Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) IV d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) suppository ANS: C
  4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has diabetes and complains of chronic burning leg pain even when taking oxycodone (OxyContin) twice daily. When reviewing the orders, which prescribed

medication is the best choice for the nurse to administer as an adjuvant to decrease the patient’s pain? a. (^) Aspirin (Ecotrin) b. (^) Celecoxib (Celebrex) c. (^) Amitriptyline (Elavil) d. (^) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) ANS: C

  1. A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch for chronic abdominal pain caused by ovarian cancer asks the nurse to administer the prescribed hydrocodone (Vicodin) tablets, but the patient is asleep when the nurse returns with the medication. Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. (^) Wake the patient and administer the hydrocodone. b. (^) Wait until the patient wakes up and reassess the pain. c. (^) Suggest the use of nondrug therapies for pain relief instead of additional opioids. d. (^) Consult with the health care provider about changing the fentanyl (Duragesic) dose. ANS: A
  2. The following medications are prescribed by the health care provider for a middle-aged patient who uses long-acting morphine (MS Contin) for chronic back pain, but still has ongoing pain. Which medication should the nurse question? a. (^) Morphine (Roxanol) b. (^) Pentazocine (Talwin) c. (^) Celecoxib (Celebrex) d. Dexamethasone (Decadron) ANS: B
  3. The nurse is caring for a 1 - day postoperative patient who is receiving morphine through patientcontrolled analgesia (PCA). What action by the nurse is a priority? a. (^) Check the respiratory rate. b. (^) Assess for nausea after eating. c. (^) Inspect the abdomen and auscultate bowel sounds.

c. (^) Suggest the use of alternative therapies such as heat or cold. d. (^) Consult with the doctor about increasing the MS Contin dose. ANS: B

  1. Which nursing action could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) when caring for a patient who is using a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch and a heating pad for treatment of chronic back pain? a. (^) Check the skin under the heating pad. b. (^) Take the respiratory rate every 2 hours. c. (^) Monitor sedation using the sedation assessment scale. d. (^) Ask the patient about whether pain control is effective. ANS: B
  2. A patient who is using a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch and immediate-release morphine for chronic cancer pain develops new-onset confusion, dizziness, and a decrease in respiratory rate. Which action should the nurse take first? a. (^) Obtain vital signs. b. Remove the fentanyl patch. c. (^) Notify the health care provider. d. (^) Administer the prescribed PRN naloxone (Narcan). ANS: B
  3. The nurse reviews the medication orders for an older patient with arthritis in both hips who is complaining of level 3 (0 to 10 scale) hip pain while ambulating. Which medication should the nurse use as initial therapy? a. (^) Naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg orally b. (^) Oxycodone (Roxicodone) 5 mg orally c. (^) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally d. (^) Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA) 650 mg orally

ANS: C

  1. Which patient with pain should the nurse assess first? a. (^) Patient with postoperative pain who received morphine sulfate IV 15 minutes ago b. Patient with neuropathic pain who has a dose of hydrocodone (Lortab) scheduled now c. (^) Patient who received hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 1 hour ago and currently has a sedation scale of 2 d. (^) Patient who returned from the postanesthesia care unit 2 hours ago and has a respiratory rate of 10 ANS: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE
  2. The health care provider orders a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) machine to provide pain relief for a patient with acute surgical pain who has never received opioids in the past. Which nursing actions regarding opioid administration are appropriate at this time ( select all that apply )? a. (^) Assess for signs that the patient is becoming addicted to the opioid. b. (^) Monitor for therapeutic and adverse effects of opioid administration. c. (^) Emphasize that the risk of some opioid side effects increases over time. d. (^) Teach the patient about how analgesics improve postoperative activity levels. e. (^) Provide instructions on decreasing opioid doses by the second postoperative day. ANS: B, D
  3. A nurse assesses a postoperative patient 2 days after chest surgery. What findings indicate that the patient requires better pain management ( select all that apply )? a. Confusion d. Shallow breathing b. (^) Hypoglycemia e. (^) Elevated temperature

12: Inflammation and Wound Healing Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. The nurse assesses a patient’s surgical wound on the first postoperative day and notes redness and warmth around the incision. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. (^) Obtain wound cultures. b. Document the assessment. c. (^) Notify the health care provider. d. (^) Assess the wound every 2 hours. ANS: B
  2. A patient with an open leg wound has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 13, 500/μL and a band count of 11%. What action should the nurse take first? a. (^) Obtain wound cultures. b. (^) Start antibiotic therapy. c. (^) Redress the wound with wet-to-dry dressings. d. (^) Continue to monitor the wound for purulent drainage. ANS: A
  3. A patient with a systemic bacterial infection feels cold and has a shaking chill. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect next? a. (^) Skin flushing b. (^) Muscle cramps c. Rising body temperature d. (^) Decreasing blood pressure ANS: C
  1. A young adult patient who is receiving antibiotics for an infected leg wound has a temperature of 101.8° F (38.7° C). Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. (^) Apply a cooling blanket. b. (^) Notify the health care provider. c. (^) Give the prescribed PRN aspirin (Ascriptin) 650 mg. d. (^) Check the patient’s oral temperature again in 4 hours. ANS: D
  2. A patient’s 4 3 - cm leg wound has a 0.4 cm black area in the center of the wound surrounded by yellow-green semiliquid material. Which dressing should the nurse apply to the wound? a. (^) Dry gauze dressing (Kerlix) b. (^) Nonadherent dressing (Xeroform) c. Hydrocolloid dressing (DuoDerm) d. (^) Transparent film dressing (Tegaderm) ANS: C
  3. A patient has an open surgical wound on the abdomen that contains deep pink granulation tissue. How would the nurse document this wound? a. (^) Red wound b. (^) Yellow wound c. (^) Full-thickness wound d. Stage III pressure ulcer ANS: A
  4. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking corticosteroids for 11 months. Which nursing action is most likely to detect early signs of infection in this patient? a. (^) Monitor white blood cell count. b. (^) Check the skin for areas of redness. c. (^) Check the temperature every 2 hours. d. Ask about fatigue or feelings of malaise. ANS: D
  5. The nurse should plan to use a wet-to-dry dressing for which patient?

c. (^) Apply antimicrobial ointment before repacking the wound with moist dressings. d. (^) Administer the ordered PRN hydrocodone (Lortab) 30 minutes before the dressing change. ANS: D

  1. A new nurse performs a dressing change on a stage II left heel pressure ulcer. Which action by the new nurse indicates a need for further teaching about pressure ulcer care? a. (^) The new nurse uses a hydrocolloid dressing (DuoDerm) to cover the ulcer. b. (^) The new nurse inserts a sterile cottontipped applicator into the pressure ulcer. c. (^) The new nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with sterile saline using a 30 - mL syringe. d. (^) The new nurse cleans the ulcer with a sterile dressing soaked in half-strength peroxide. ANS: D
  2. A patient arrives in the emergency department with a swollen ankle after an injury incurred while playing soccer. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Elevate the ankle above heart level. b. (^) Apply a warm moist pack to the ankle. c. (^) Assess the ankle’s range of motion (ROM). d. (^) Assess whether the patient can bear weight on the affected ankle. ANS: A
  3. When admitting a patient with stage III pressure ulcers on both heels, which information obtained by the nurse will have the most impact on wound healing? a. (^) The patient takes insulin daily. b. (^) The patient states that the ulcers are very painful.

c. (^) The patient has had the heel ulcers for the last 6 months. d. (^) The patient has several old incisions that have formed keloids. ANS: A

  1. After receiving a change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. (^) The patient who has multiple black wounds on the feet and ankles b. (^) The newly admitted patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer on the coccyx c. (^) The patient who has been receiving chemotherapy and has a temperature of 102° F d. (^) The patient who needs to be medicated with multiple analgesics before a scheduled dressing change ANS: C
  2. The nurse could delegate care of which patient to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. (^) The patient who has increased tenderness and swelling around a leg wound b. (^) The patient who was just admitted after suturing of a full-thickness arm wound c. The patient who needs teaching about home care for a draining abdominal wound d. (^) The patient who requires a hydrocolloid dressing change for a stage III sacral ulcer ANS: D
  3. The nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes who had abdominal surgery 3 days ago. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. (^) Blood glucose 136 mg/dL b. (^) Oral temperature 101° F (38.3° C) c. (^) Patient complaint of increased incisional pain

ANS: D SHORT ANSWER

  1. A patient’s temperature has been 101° F (38.3° C) for several days. The patient’s normal caloric intake to meet nutritional needs is 2000 calories per day. Knowing that the metabolic rate increases 7% for each Fahrenheit degree above 100° in body temperature, how many total calories should the patient receive each day? ANS: 2140 calories OTHER
  2. A patient who has an infected abdominal wound develops a temperature of 104° F (40° C). All the following interventions are included in the patient’s plan of care. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D]). a. Administer IV antibiotics. b. Sponge patient with cool water. c. Perform wet-to-dry dressing change. d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol). ANS: A, D, B, C

14: Altered Immune Responses, and Transplantation Test

Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who has an immune deficiency involving the T lymphocytes. Which screening should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient? a. (^) Screening for allergies b. Screening for malignancy c. (^) Antibody deficiency screening d. (^) Screening for autoimmune disorders ANS: B
  2. A new mother expresses concern about her baby developing allergies and asks what the health care provider meant by “passive immunity.” Which example should the nurse use to explain this type of immunity? a. (^) Early immunization b. (^) Bone marrow donation c. Breastfeeding her infant d. (^) Exposure to communicable diseases ANS: C
  3. A patient is being evaluated for possible atopic dermatitis. The nurse expects elevation of which laboratory value? a. (^) IgE b. (^) IgA c. (^) Basophils d. (^) Neutrophils ANS: A
  4. An older adult patient who is having an annual check-up tells the nurse, “I feel fine, and I don’t want to pay for all these unnecessary cancer screening tests!” Which information should the nurse plan to teach this patient? a. Consequences of aging on cell-mediated immunity b. (^) Decrease in antibody production associated with aging

d. (^) Re-evaluate the patient’s sensitivity to the allergen with a repeat skin test. ANS: C

  1. While obtaining a health history from a patient, the nurse learns that the patient has a history of allergic rhinitis and multiple food allergies. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. (^) Encourage the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case a type IV allergic reaction to latex develops. b. (^) Advise the patient to use oil-based hand creams to decrease contact with natural proteins in latex gloves. c. (^) Document the patient’s allergy history and be alert for any clinical manifestations of a type I latex allergy. d. (^) Recommend that the patient use vinyl gloves instead of latex gloves in preventing blood-borne pathogen contact. ANS: C
  2. The nurse teaches a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) about plasmapheresis. What instructions about plasmapheresis should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. (^) Plasmapheresis will eliminate eosinophils and basophils from blood. b. (^) Plasmapheresis will remove antibodyantigen complexes from circulation. c. (^) Plasmapheresis will prevent foreign antibodies from damaging various body tissues. d. (^) Plasmapheresis will decrease the damage to organs caused by attacking T lymphocytes. ANS: B
  3. The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing plasmapheresis. The nurse should assess the patient for which clinical manifestation?

a. (^) Shortness of breath b. High blood pressure c. (^) Transfusion reaction d. (^) Numbness and tingling ANS: D

  1. Which statement by a patient would alert the nurse to a possible immunodeficiency disorder? a. (^) “I take one baby aspirin every day to prevent stroke.” b. (^) “I usually eat eggs or meat for at least 2 meals a day.” c. (^) “I had my spleen removed many years ago after a car accident.” d. “I had a chest x-ray 6 months ago when I had walking pneumonia.” ANS: C
  2. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. (^) Patient with urticaria after receiving an IV antibiotic b. (^) Patient who has graft-versus-host disease and severe diarrhea c. (^) Patient who is sneezing after having subcutaneous immunotherapy d. (^) Patient with multiple chemical sensitivities who has muscle stiffness ANS: C
  3. Ten days after receiving a bone marrow transplant, a patient develops a skin rash. What would the nurse suspect is the cause of this patient’s skin rash? a. The donor T cells are attacking the patient’s skin cells. b. (^) The patient’s antibodies are rejecting the donor bone marrow. c. (^) The patient is experiencing a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.