Download AT BOC Prep Domain I - Injury and Illness Prevention and Wellness Promotion graded A lates and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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A: Intrinsic factors are directly related to the athlete and include factors such as age, gender, and physical stature. Extrinsic factors relate to the environment, equipment, type of activity, and amount of exposure to injury. - correct answerWhich of the following is considered an intrinsic risk factor? A. Being a female high school athlete B. Practicing when the temperature is 85°F and the humidity is 85% C. Running on a cross country wooded trail D. Using an inflatable bladder football helmet E. Participating in a contact sport B: Increased weight bearing and increased calcium intake enhance bone strength, therefore decreasing the risk of developing osteoporosis and bone weakness. Weight-bearing activities apply stresses to the bones, resulting in an increase in compressive load tolerance. - correct answerOsteoporosis is a condition that predominantly affects older women. Which of the following prevention strategies would provide the most signifi cant impact? A. Moderate swimming and increased vitamin C intake B. Weight-bearing activities and increased calcium intake C. Maintaining 10% body fat and using a minimal resistance stationary bike D. Increased electrolytes and use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medication E. Avoidance of physical activity and dairy products D: Passive motion is used to assess noncontractile structures and flexibility of contractile tissues being put on stretch. When the ankle joint is passively dorsiflexed, the ankle joint plantar flexors are put on stretch. - correct answerAn athlete demonstrates limited passive dorsiflexion at the preparticipation screening. Which of the following factors is most likely restricting this motion? A. Strength of the posterior tibialis muscle B. Strength of the peroneal muscles C. Flexibility of the toe extensor muscles D. Flexibility of the Achilles tendon complex E. Strength of the anterior tibialis muscle
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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A: This method of examination scheduling would allow for the highest quality and most individualized up-to-date information for each athlete. - correct answerYou are the athletic trainer at a high school that sponsors 22 sports. There are approximately 500 athletes. For this high school, which preparticipation examination format is the most effective and effi cient? A. Provide a station-based examination with the assistance of multiple medical and health-care professionals before the start of each sport season (i.e., fall, winter, spring). B. Provide individual examinations with the assistance of fi ve family practice physicians stationed in individual examination rooms. C. Provide a station-based examination with the assistance of multiple medical and health-care professionals in the summer before the start of the school year. D. During the summer months, schedule individual appointments for each athlete with the team physician. E. Require each athlete to obtain on his or her own a physical examination through a licensed health-care provider. A: While the research does not conclusively indicate synthetic surfaces are more likely to cause injuries compared with natural surfaces, both abrasions and turf toe (hyperextension of fi rst metatarsophalangeal joint) seem to occur more frequently in athletes using synthetic surfaces. - correct answerA soccer team will be playing on synthetic turf during an upcoming 2-day tournament. What injuries should you be most prepared to treat during this tournament? A. Abrasions and turf toe B. Concussions and arch sprains C. Contusions and ankle sprains D. Tibial fractures and concussions E. Blisters and hamstring strains D: An ergonomic assessment is an evaluation of the employee ' s interaction with a workstation environment.
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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external to the body and result in injury, such as the blunt force sustained in commotio cordis - correct answerWhich of the following potential causes of sudden cardiac death is caused by an extrinsic risk factor? A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Long QT syndrome C. Commotio cordis D. Myocarditis D: SCAT (Sport Concussion Assessment Tool) is a standardized method for establishing baseline concussion data. - correct answerWhich of the following could you incorporate into your preparticipation examination to gather baseline concussion data? A. Vital sign assessment B. Upper quarter screening C. Glasgow Coma Scale D. SCAT5 (Sport Concussion Assessment Tool) B: Wellness screening includes questions about diet, rest, exercise, stress management, and weight control as well as alcohol, drug, and tobacco use. - correct answerWhat is the purpose of including a wellness screening as part of the preparticipation examination? A. To disqualify the athlete from participation B. To determine if the athlete is engaging in healthy or unhealthy behaviors and lifestyle habits that pose a threat to wellness C. To screen for health maintenance, personal hygiene, and potential for infectious diseases D. To assess physical maturity in order to protect young, physically undeveloped athletes C: Intrinsic risk factors originate within the individual, such as lean-to-fat mass ratio. - correct answerWhich of the following would be an intrinsic risk factor for exertional heatstroke? A. High ambient temperature and humidity B. Minimal access to fl uids before and during participation C. High muscle mass-to-body fat ratio D. Inappropriate work-to-rest ratios
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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A: Based on recommendations from the American Heart Association, a history of symptoms during exertion warrants referral to a physician. - correct answerA positive response to which of the following questions on a preparticipation examination medical history would result in referral to a physician for additional screening? A. Does your heart race or skip beats during exercise? B. Have you ever spent the night in a hospital? C. Is there anyone in your family who has asthma? D. Have you ever fractured a bone? B: Due to repetitive throwing motion, upper extremity athletes maintain a normal arc of motion by exchanging excessive external rotation for a decrease in internal rotation. - correct answerWhen conducting a preparticipation examination, which of the following fi ndings would be considered a normal physiological adaptation to exercise and sport participation? A. Resting heart rate above normal range B. Increased external rotation and decreased internal rotation in the dominant arm of a baseball pitcher C. Resting blood pressure below normal values D. Quadriceps-to-hamstring ratio closer to 1 C: Injury prevalence assesses the number of injuries sustained in a specifi c population. - correct answerWhich of the following is an examination of injury prevalence data you might gather when analyzing your injury rates? A. Number of injuries sustained during practice sessions B. Number of new ankle injuries sustained by the soccer team during the fall season C. Total number of injuries sustained by the basketball team D. Average number of injuries per athlete per practice session D: Meta-analyses are the most rigorous type of research study and introduce the least amount of bias
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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C: The deltoid muscle acts to abduct the shoulder, and its strength can be tested through manual resistance of abduction - correct answer19. When performing the quick orthopedic screening as part of the preparticipation examination, the athlete is asked to abduct the shoulders to 90° and hold that position against downward pressure by the examiner. What is being tested during this part of the screening? A. Trapezius strength B. Shoulder range of motion C. Deltoid strength D. Shoulder symmetry C: Snellen eye charts assess distance visual acuity, which is normally 20/20. The numerator represents the distance the patient is standing from chart ( feet), and the denominator represents the distance at which a normal person can read the same-size letters on that line. The higher the denominator, the poorer the patient ' s distance vision. Athletes with suboptimal visual acuity should be referred for evaluation and possible correction - correct answerYou are using a Snellen eye chart to assess baseline visual acuity. An athlete is able to comfortably read the line associated with 20/40 vision in the right eye and 20/50 vision in the left eye. What action would you take? A. No action is necessary. B. Retest the athlete serially for 2 to 3 weeks to see if you get the same results. C. Refer the athlete to an optometrist for evaluation. D. Hold the athlete from all participation pending referral results. D: Dimension-specifi c instruments assess one specifi c aspect of a patient ' s health and relate closely to psychological well-being - correct answerYou elect to have a patient complete a McGill Pain Questionnaire before his or her rehabilitation appointment. Which type of patient-reported outcome (PRO) scale is being used? A. Generic instrument B. Disease-specific instrument C. Site-specific instrument
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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D. Dimension-specific instrument A: Athletes with poorly controlled seizure disorders can safely participate in moderately strenuous noncontact sports that pose no life-threatening risk to self or others should a seizure occur - correct answerIn which of the following sports activities could an athlete with poorly controlled epilepsy safely participate? A. Ballet B. Swimming C. Archery D. Volleyball B: Assessment data can be used to decrease injuries by implementing proactive measures to address defi ciencies. - correct answerDuring your preparticipation screening, you determine that 75% of the athletes on the baseball team have sit and reach scores below normal limits. How would you best use this information? A. Instruct the athletes to work on improving their fl exibility. B. Work with the coaches to incorporate fl exibility exercises into the team warm-up and cool-down. C. Meet with the strength and conditioning coach to revise the weight training program. D. Ask the team nutritionist to conduct a special seminar on hydration and electrolytes. A: Strength Of Evidence Taxonomy (SORT) and Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM) scales provide means to evaluate the level of evidence and confi dence of the evidence-based recommendation being made - correct answerA recently released position statement recommendation carries a Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM) and a Strength Of Evidence Taxonomy (SORT) rating of "A." How would a clinician best apply this recommendation? A. The clinician should attempt to apply this recommendation into clinical practice, as it carries a high degree of evidence. B. The clinician should evaluate how the
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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edge; (2) not being able to stop or control worry; (3) worrying too much about different things; (4) trouble relaxing; (5) being so restless that it is hard to sit still; (6) becoming easily annoyed or irritable; (7) feeling afraid as if something awful might happen. Which mental health condition is this tool assessing? A. Attention defi cit-hyperactivity disorder B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder D. Depression C: A medical history form should be completed before the physical examination in order to identify any past medical problems and any need for referral to medical professionals, counselors, and other health-care professionals - correct answerA negative ("no") response to which of the following questions on a preparticipation examination medical history form would warrant referral to a health-care professional for additional screening? A. Do you limit or carefully control what you eat? B. Has anyone recommended you change your weight or eating habits? C. Are you happy with your weight? D. Are you trying to gain or lose weight? E. Are you taking any medications or supplements for weight loss or weight gain? D: Sickle cell trait (SCT) is common in people who descend from areas where malaria is common, such as parts of Africa, so SCT should be thought of as malarial, not racial. SCT occurs most commonly in African Americans but also occurs in persons of Hispanic ethnicity and persons from the Mediterranean, the Middle East, and parts of India. - correct answerSickle cell trait (SCT) is a condition that comes from inheriting one gene for normal hemoglobin and one gene for sickle hemoglobin and can be present in persons of any ethnicity. In which population group is the incidence of SCT most common? A. Eastern European B. Middle Eastern C. Hispanic
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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D. African American B: Sensitivity is the value used to describe a test ' s ability to detect the disorder when it is present and is also known as the "true positive rate. - correct answerTo determine the diagnostic accuracy of a newly designed physical examination test, researchers calculate the test ' s sensitivity. Which statement regarding test sensitivity is correct? A. Sensitivity is also known as the "true negative rate." B. Sensitivity is calculated as true positives/(true positives + false negatives). C. Sensitivity describes the test ' s ability to detect patients who do not have the disorder. D. Sensitivity is calculated as true negatives/(true negatives + false positives). E. Sensitivity is also known as the "diagnostic gold standard." C: Athlete exposure is calculated by multiplying the number of athletes at each practice/game by the number of practices/games. Exposure rate is determined by looking at the number of injuries during a set period of time. - correct answerWhat should you calculate if you want to determine the incidence of injuries for last season ' s men ' s soccer team, per the number of individual athlete exposures? A. Incidence of injury B. Injury prevalence C. Injury exposure rate D. Injury likelihood ratio C: Education on proper inhaler use is an important component of an asthma care plan. Improper inhaler use is common and can result in patients receiving incorrect and ineffective dosages. - correct answerWhile reviewing a preparticipation examination medical history, you note an athlete has indicated a previous diagnosis of exercise-induced bronchospasm. He has been using an inhaled beta-2 agonist from a metered-dose inhaler taken 15 to 30 minutes before
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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mouthpiece inhale completely until the indicator rises within the meter. B. After placing the peak fl ow meter mouthpiece in your mouth, seal your lips tightly around the mouthpiece, then blow out as hard and as fast as you can one time. C. Stand or sit up straight, exhale completely, then with your lips tightly around the mouthpiece inhale as fast as you can one time. D. While standing, slide the indicator to the base of the meter and then wrap your lips tightly around the mouthpiece, take in a deep breath, and maximally exhale as slowly as possible. E: A dipstick urinalysis is considered a reliable method for determining the presence of a urinary tract infection, as the presence of nitrates or leukocyte esterase confi rms the diagnosis. - correct answerA routine dipstick urinalysis is often part of a preparticipation physical examination. The following are the results of a urinalysis:
- Appearance = light yellow and cloudy
- Leukocyte esterase (LE) = moderate
- Nitrite = positive
- Blood = nonhemolyzed moderate What condition do these urinalysis results suggest? A. Dehydration B. Diabetes mellitus C. Disordered eating D. Blocked bile duct E. Urinary tract infection B: This test requires participants to run a distance of 1.5 miles (2.4 km) as quickly as possible. The total time to cover this distance is recorded as the outcome measure. Classifi cations of cardiovascular fi tness (based on normative values in particular age groups) have been established and can be used in interpreting outcome data. Predicted Vo 2 max can be calculated from the 1.5-mile run time. - correct answer. The Cooper 1.5 mile run test is commonly used to assess aerobic fi tness. What outcome data are
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produced from this assessment? A. Maximal heart rate B. Minutes run C. Distance (miles or kilometers) run D. Sweat rate E: The National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) and the National Association of State High School Associations have established participation regulations for wrestlers with bacterial, viral, and fungal infections. - correct answerPreparticipation skin checks for wrestlers determine participation eligibility. With which of the following dermatological conditions may a wrestler compete, provided that the active lesions are adequately covered? A. Community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) B. Herpes simplex virus C. Impetigo D. Furuncles E. Tinea corporis B: The National High School Sports-Related Injury Surveillance Study is an Internet-based data collection tool similar to the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) Injury Surveillance System. This reporting system collects data from a national sample of high schools, allowing for comparisons between individual school injury rates and providing a national perspective. - correct answerDuring a preparticipation examination, the parent of a high school freshman asks if the risk of injury is higher if his daughter plays soccer or volleyball. On what should you base your answer? A. Data in your school ' s annual sports medicine report specifi c to the number of soccer players and volleyball players treated by your athletic training staff during the previous two seasons. B. Data from the National High School Sports-Related Injury Surveillance Study specifi c to athlete injury exposure rates for the sports of soccer and volleyball. C. Data from the National Center for Catastrophic
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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A: According to the National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA) position statement, trauma, even in persons without diabetes, often causes a hyperglycemic state, which can impair wound healing. Blood glucose should be frequently monitored following trauma. - correct answerYou receive a call from your team physician alerting you that the female equestrian athlete you had referred to him has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. You decide it is important to counsel the athlete on the impact of the injury on her disease. Which statement is an accurate representation of the effect that injury may have on glycemic control? A. Athletes with type 1 diabetes appear to have an exaggerated glycemic response to trauma. B. Injury does not affect an athlete with type 1 diabetes any differently than an athlete without type 1 diabetes. C. Athletes with type 1 diabetes are at an increased risk for infection. D. Athletes with type 1 diabetes, even those with poorly controlled blood glucose, will demonstrate fracture healing at a similar rate to athletes without diabetes. A: The National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) guidelines state that an athlete at any division level should complete a preparticipation medical evaluation on entrance to the institution - correct answerAccording to National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) guidelines, which of the following collegiate athletes must complete a comprehensive preparticipation medical evaluation? A. A baseball player transferring from a similardivision NCAA institution who reports no injuries or health concerns on his medical history form B. A junior basketball player who has not completed a comprehensive examination since his freshman year C. A junior football player who has not completed a cardiovascular screening as part of the preparticipation examination since his freshman
Illness Prevention and Wellness
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year D. A senior sprinter who had only history and blood pressure measurements taken as part of the cardiovascular screening each season since the initial preparticipation physical examination E. A senior fi eld hockey player who tore her anterior cruciate ligament in her sophomore season and participated during her junior year B: The pathology combined with the level of contact inherent in the sport is consistent with the recommendation from the American Academy of Pediatrics - correct answerAccording to the American Academy of Pediatrics Guidelines for Sports Participation, which of the following athletes should be recommended for clearance to participate? A. An athlete recently diagnosed with carditis wishing to participate in lacrosse B. An athlete with atlantoaxial instability wishing to participate in cross country C. An offensive lineman with one kidney D. An athlete with an enlarged spleen wishing to participate in swimming E. An athlete with an enlarged liver wishing to participate in basketball E: This response is consistent with the description of the condition - correct answerA swimmer at a high school for which you are the athletic trainer has been diagnosed with Wolff- Parkinson-White syndrome. Which statement best characterizes this condition? A. Currently the leading cause of sudden death in athletes B. Characterized by a prolonged P-R interval and a shortened QRS complex C. Results in atrial pre-excitation and bradycardia due to accessory pathway electrical activity D. Results in delayed atrial excitation and tachycardia due to an electrical accessory pathway E. Characterized by ventricular pre-excitation and tachycardia due to electrical conduction over accessory pathways
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C. Phoresor D. Paraffi n bath E. Mechanical cervical traction A: Laws and policies surrounding the use of therapeutic modalities by athletic trainers are established and regulated at the state governmental level - correct answerAt what governmental level are the laws and policies regarding the use of therapeutic modalities by athletic trainers established and regulated? A. State B. National C. Regional D. Local E. International E: Overtraining, or training too hard for too long without proper rest, can lead to staleness and eventual burnout. Staleness can manifest itself in both physiological and psychological symptoms, including elevated resting heart rate and blood pressure, sleeping disorders, loss of appetite, perceived body pains, and mood disorders - correct answerYou suspect that a swimmer may be experiencing symptoms of overtraining. Which of the following situations is a signifi cant indicator of overtraining? A. The athlete demonstrates increased whole-body muscle tone. B. The athlete complains of being easily agitated. C. The athlete reports increased urinary output. D. The athlete ' s blood pressure is below preparticipation baseline. E. The athlete ' s resting heart rate is elevated above preparticipation baseline. C: Patients should be encouraged to emphasize exhalation during exertion and avoid holding the breath to prevent the Valsalva maneuver from occurring - correct answerHow should you instruct an athlete to breathe while performing a bench press? A. Inhale as the bar is thrust upward and exhale as the bar is lowered.
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B. Hold the breath as the bar is lowered and inhale as the bar is thrust upward. C. Inhale as the bar is lowered and exhale as the bar is thrust upward. D. Hold the breath until one repetition is complete. E. Inhale as the bar is lowered and hold the breath as the bar is thrust upward. A: Severe muscle cramping, heat intolerance, level breathing, tachycardia, and hypotension can be associated with exertional sickling. Sickle cell trait is more common in certain ethnic groups, including African Americans - correct answerAn African American athlete reports for her preparticipation examination and notes she has experienced heat intolerance, severe muscle cramping, hyperventilation, tachycardia, and symptoms of hypotension during the past 6 months. Based on this information, what action should you take? A. Screen for sickle cell trait B. Screen for hypertension C. Screen for Marfan ' s syndrome D. Screen for type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Assess her overall fi tness level C: Exercising at 70% of maximum heart rate is necessary to see minimal improvement, and most trained individuals can comfortably sustain work at 85% of their maximum heart rate - correct answerWhat is the recommended intensity for cardiovascular training during a continuous workout? A. 30%-45% of maximum heart rate B. 45%-60% of maximum heart rate C. 70%-85% of maximum heart rate D. 90%-100% of maximum heart rate D: Spread most commonly through contact with the blood of an infected person, hepatitis C virus (HCV) has extremely high risks of chronic infection, with 80% of persons infected not demonstrating any signs or symptoms - correct answerWhat is the most common chronic bloodborne pathogen infection in the United States? A. Human immunodefi ciency virus (HIV)
