Download ASN NSG 1550 Nsg1550 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam Questions And Correct Answers (V and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
ASN NSG 1550 Nsg1550 Fundamentals of Nursing
Final Exam Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A |
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- A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client about preventing pressure ulcers. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. Massage bony prominences daily b. Reposition at least every 2 hours c. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 90 degrees d. Limit fluid intake to prevent incontinence Rationale: Repositioning every 2 hours improves circulation and reduces pressure, preventing skin breakdown.
- Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates correct use of standard precautions? a. Wearing gloves when taking a blood pressure b. Wearing gloves when emptying a urinary catheter bag c. Wearing a gown when feeding a client d. Wearing a mask when taking vital signs Rationale: Gloves are necessary when in contact with body fluids like urine.
- Which pulse site is best for assessing circulation to the foot? a. Radial
b. Apical c. Dorsalis pedis d. Carotid Rationale: Dorsalis pedis pulse assesses peripheral circulation in the lower extremities.
- Which of the following is a sign of fluid volume deficit? a. Hypertension b. Bounding pulse c. Dry mucous membranes d. Peripheral edema Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a common indicator of dehydration.
- A nurse notes that a client has a temperature of 102.6°F. Which action is most appropriate? a. Administer antipyretic as ordered b. Apply warm blankets c. Encourage bedrest with lights off d. Provide carbonated beverages Rationale: Antipyretics like acetaminophen reduce fever effectively.
- The nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter. Which technique is required? a. Clean technique b. Universal precautions c. Sterile technique d. Medical asepsis
10.A nurse is caring for a client with dysphagia. Which action is appropriate during feeding? a. Offer large bites to decrease meal time b. Keep client in an upright position c. Allow client to lie back in bed d. Offer thin liquids with a straw Rationale: Upright position reduces aspiration risk. 11.What is the first step of the nursing process? a. Diagnosis b. Assessment c. Implementation d. Evaluation Rationale: Assessment involves gathering data to guide the nursing process. 12.Which statement indicates understanding of hand hygiene? a. "I only wash my hands after touching blood." b. "Using gloves means I don’t need to wash hands." c. "I will wash hands before and after patient care." d. "Hand sanitizer is enough after using the restroom." Rationale: Hand hygiene before and after contact prevents cross- contamination. 13.When using crutches, the client should be instructed to: a. Use arms to support body weight, not the armpits b. Rest body weight on the axilla c. Look down while walking
d. Keep crutches very close together when moving Rationale: Pressure on the axilla can cause nerve damage. 14.Which nutrient is essential for wound healing? a. Calcium b. Carbohydrates c. Iron d. Protein Rationale: Protein is necessary for tissue repair and collagen formation. 15.A nurse uses SBAR to report to a provider. What does “R” stand for? a. Response b. Recommendation c. Review d. Request Rationale: Recommendation suggests what action is needed. 16.What is the normal range for respiratory rate in adults? a. 8– 16 b. 24– 30 c. 12– 20 d. 30– 40 Rationale: The adult normal range is 12–20 breaths/min. 17.The client reports pain as 9/10. What action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the physician b. Document the pain level c. Administer prescribed analgesic
c. Apply supplemental oxygen d. Document findings Rationale: Immediate oxygen administration helps restore oxygenation. 22.Which type of isolation is used for tuberculosis? a. Contact b. Airborne c. Droplet d. Standard Rationale: Airborne precautions are required due to small particle transmission. 23.Which is an example of subjective data? a. Blood pressure 140/ b. “I feel dizzy” c. Vomiting 200 mL d. Skin is warm and red Rationale: Subjective data is what the patient reports. 24.A nurse should identify which finding as an adverse effect of opioid use? a. Diarrhea b. Polyuria c. Respiratory depression d. Hypertension Rationale: Opioids suppress the respiratory center in the brain. 25.What is the priority action when a fire is discovered in a client’s room? a. Rescue the client
b. Pull the fire alarm c. Close all doors d. Use a fire extinguisher Rationale: The first step in RACE is to rescue anyone in danger. 26.Which technique is correct when collecting a clean-catch urine specimen? a. Collect urine from the catheter bag b. Use the first stream of urine c. Have client clean perineal area before voiding d. Use any voided urine sample Rationale: Cleaning the perineal area reduces contamination risk in a clean- catch sample. 27.When assisting a client with ambulation using a gait belt, the nurse should stand: a. Slightly behind and to the side of the client b. Directly in front of the client c. Behind the client at all times d. On the stronger side only Rationale: This position gives the nurse stability and allows quick assistance if the client falls. 28.Which of the following best demonstrates cultural competence? a. Asking the client about any cultural practices related to health b. Assuming the client follows general cultural norms c. Encouraging the client to adapt to facility routines
a. 90 degrees in all cases b. 45 or 90 degrees depending on body fat c. 15 degrees d. 30 degrees only Rationale: Angle depends on the patient's body mass and needle length. 33.Which task can be delegated to a UAP (Unlicensed Assistive Personnel)? a. Assisting a client with bathing b. Administering oral medications c. Assessing pain level d. Developing a care plan Rationale: UAPs can assist with hygiene, not medication or assessments. 34.What should the nurse do after a medication error is discovered? a. Ignore if the client is stable b. Notify the client’s family c. Report the error and complete an incident report d. Wait to see if side effects occur Rationale: Medication errors must be reported immediately per facility policy. 35.What is a priority action after finding a client on the floor? a. Assess for injury before moving the client b. Help the client into bed quickly c. Report the fall to the nurse manager d. Call a code Rationale: Safety assessment comes first to prevent further injury.
36.A client receiving a diuretic complains of muscle cramps. What should the nurse suspect? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypernatremia Rationale: Diuretics may cause potassium loss, leading to cramps. 37.Before feeding a client with dysphagia, the nurse should: a. Recline the bed b. Verify a recent swallow evaluation c. Use a straw for all fluids d. Offer large bites Rationale: A swallow evaluation ensures safe oral intake. 38.What is the most accurate method of checking fluid balance? a. Monitor skin turgor b. Daily weight c. Urine color d. Intake log Rationale: Daily weight is the most reliable indicator of fluid changes. 39.Which is an early sign of hypoxia? a. Restlessness and anxiety b. Cyanosis c. Bradypnea
b. Using only written materials c. Speaking quickly to cover more d. Repeating the same phrase Rationale: Plain language ensures the client can understand the material. 44.A nurse is preparing to measure a client's blood pressure. What step ensures accuracy? a. Arm elevated above the heart b. Arm at heart level and supported c. Cross legs for comfort d. Use a small cuff if unsure Rationale: The arm should be supported at heart level for an accurate reading. 45.When donning PPE for contact precautions, which item goes on first? a. Gloves b. Gown c. Mask d. Goggles Rationale: The gown is put on first to cover clothing before other items. 46.What is the best action when a client refuses a medication? a. Document the refusal and notify the provider b. Hide the medication in food c. Explain they must take it d. Try again without informing others
Rationale: Respect for autonomy and safety requires documentation and provider notification. 47.Which is a sign of infection at an IV site? a. Redness and swelling b. Clear fluid drainage c. Skin cool to touch d. Pain-free insertion site Rationale: Redness and swelling indicate possible phlebitis or infection. 48.Which value is within the normal adult blood pressure range? a. 130/ b. 118/ c. 140/ d. 88/ Rationale: Normal adult BP is considered around 120/80 mmHg. 49.What is the purpose of range-of-motion exercises? a. Maintain joint mobility b. Prevent fever c. Decrease oxygen demand d. Improve memory Rationale: ROM exercises prevent stiffness and maintain flexibility. 50.When should the nurse perform hand hygiene during client care? a. After wearing gloves only b. Before and after all client contact c. Only if hands are visibly soiled
54.Which action helps prevent urinary tract infections? a. Use bubble bath frequently b. Wipe from front to back c. Decrease fluid intake d. Delay voiding as long as possible Rationale: Proper hygiene reduces the risk of ascending infections. 55.A nurse prepares to administer a transdermal patch. What is a priority action? a. Shave the skin before application b. Remove the old patch c. Place the patch over a bony prominence d. Apply to reddened skin Rationale: Old patches must be removed to prevent overdose or skin reactions. 56.Which of the following actions is correct when weighing a hospitalized client? a. Use any available scale b. Weigh the client at the same time daily c. Change the scale each day d. Weigh after meals for consistency Rationale: Daily, same-time weights ensure accurate tracking. 57.What is the most accurate site to check a client's core body temperature? a. Axillary b. Oral
c. Rectal d. Tympanic Rationale: Rectal temperature is closest to core body temp and most reliable. 58.A nurse should use which type of precaution for a client with C. difficile? a. Airborne b. Droplet c. Contact d. Neutropenic Rationale: C. diff is spread by direct and indirect contact with feces. 59.Which term describes the process of breathing out? a. Inhalation b. Exhalation c. Diffusion d. Perfusion Rationale: Exhalation is the process of releasing air from the lungs. 60.When preparing to administer eye drops, the nurse should: a. Drop medication onto the cornea b. Instill drops into the conjunctival sac c. Hold dropper directly against the eye d. Rub eyes after administration Rationale: Instilling medication into the conjunctival sac ensures proper absorption and comfort.
c. Call the provider d. Administer oxygen Rationale: Always assess responsiveness before starting CPR. 65.A client on bedrest is at increased risk for: a. Hypertension b. Thrombus formation c. Hyperactivity d. High cardiac output Rationale: Immobility slows circulation, increasing clot risk. 66.What is the priority when transferring a client from bed to wheelchair? a. Raise the bed to the nurse’s waist b. Lock the wheelchair wheels c. Stand behind the wheelchair d. Apply lotion to client’s back Rationale: Locking wheels prevents accidental movement and ensures safety. 67.A nurse is teaching about nutrition. Which food is high in iron? a. Cheese b. Spinach c. Yogurt d. Apple Rationale: Leafy greens like spinach are rich in iron. 68.Which is a sign of phlebitis at an IV site? a. Cool and pale skin
b. Redness and tenderness along the vein c. Clear drainage d. Absence of pain Rationale: Red, painful streaks indicate vein inflammation. 69.Before applying a condom catheter, the nurse should: a. Assess for latex allergy b. Shave the pubic area c. Apply antibiotic ointment d. Tape it tightly Rationale: Latex can cause severe allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. 70.Which finding is most concerning in a post-op client? a. Temperature 99.0°F b. Urine output 10 mL/hr c. Slight drowsiness d. Mild pain at incision Rationale: Low urine output suggests poor perfusion or kidney function. 71.What is the priority when caring for a confused client? a. Leave lights off to promote sleep b. Encourage quiet time c. Maintain a safe environment d. Administer sedatives Rationale: Safety is a top priority for clients with confusion. 72.Which statement indicates proper use of a cane? a. "I use it on my weak side."
