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ASCP MLS
What feature is most often found with patients with a splenectomy on a Wright's stained blood smear? - Howell-Jolly bodies Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B: - Surface antigen (HbSAg) Which two of the following tests are helpful for documenting previous Streptococcal throat and skin infections: - ASO titer and Anti-DNase B In mass spectrometry, the "appearance potential" is defined as the: - Minimum energy required for the appearance of a particular fragment ion in mass spectrum What is generally accepted as the lower threshold value for semen pH from fertile males? -
Coulometry: - An automated method for measuring chloride which generates silver ions in the reaction Erythroleukemia: - Also known as Acute Myelogenous Leukemia type M6. This type is associated with either the presence of both erythroid and myeloid precursors OR strictly erythroid precursors. Myelomonocytic leukemia - Is associated with an increase in myeloid and monocytic cell precursors, but not red blood cell precursors Species that are Lysine (+), arginine (=) and ornithine (+): - Enterobacter aerogenes, Edwardsiella species and most Serratia species Lysine reaction for all Citrobacter: - Negative Key identifying characteristic for Pantoa (Enterobacter) agglomerans: - negative reactions for the three decarboxylases commonly tested ( Lysine, arginine and ornithine) Which organism is MOST likely responsible for septic reactions associated with Red Blood Cell transfusions? - Yersina entercolitica is most likely responsible for septic reactions in transfusions of Red Blood Cells. This organism is usually acquired by ingestion of contaminated food and causes mild symptoms of abdominal pain and diarrhea. Growth of Y. entercolitica is enhanced in iron- rich environments such as red cell components.
Gaucher's disease - The most common lysosomal storage disease caused by insufficient activity of the lysosomal enzyme glucocerebrosidase that leads to the deposition of glucocerebroside in cells of the macrophage-monocyte system. Diseases associated with dysfunctions of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) - Chediak-Higashi syndrome (CH), Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), Myeloperoxidase deficiency (MPO) Nephrotic Syndrome: - Caused by damage to the kidneys, especially the basement membrane of the glomerulus; which causes abnormal excretion of protein and red blood cells in the urine. Fats are also present in the urine in most cases. A foamy appearance of the urine is a key characteristic of this condition. Clinical symptoms include: Swelling Weight gain from fluid retention Poor appetite High blood pressure Key Biochemical reactions for Enterobacteriaceae: - The key biochemical reactions by which the family Enterobacteriaceae can be identified include fermentation of carbohydrates, reduction of nitrates to nitrites and the absence of cytochrome oxidase activity. ANA - See 2 quiz # Prozone effect: - Results in a false positive reaction; is the result of antibody excess and dilution of antibody can help prevent its occurrence Purpose of a bi-chromatic analyzer with dual wavelengths is: - Minimize the effect of interference Key characteristics of Micrococcus: - Susceptible to bacitracin ("A") and resistant to furazolidone; gram positive cocci in tetras, bacteria cells of micrococcus luteus are larger than those of the staphylococci and can arrange in tetras What is the glomerular filtration rate for a patient with a serum creatinine of 2 mg/dL, if the urine creatinine was 124 mg/dL and the urine volume was 2.2 L/24 hrs? - 95 mL/min
Reducing agents actually induce the sickling phenomenon in RBCs when they contain hemoglobin S. If an autologous blood donor weighs 35 kg, how much blood can be collected for later transfusion? - 315 mL Volume to draw = (Donor's weight in kilograms / 50 kg (minimum weight requirement) x 450 mL (volume of unit to be donated) In this case, Volume to draw = (35 kg / 50 kg) x 450 mL = 315 mL Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, is anti-inflammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity? - Adiponectin is a protective cytokine. This cytokine is anti-inflammatory and increases insulin sensitivity. Adiponectin is usually decreased in obesity. Distinguishing characteristics of Mycobacterium fortuitum: - Mycobacterium fortuitum is positive for iron uptake, nitrate, arysulfatase, and growth on MacConkey agar without crystal violet in five days. CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations? - Mature T cells Define: Congestive heart failure - A left ventricular dysfunction resulting from aging, hypertension, atherosclerosis or muscle damage from an AMI or repeated AMIs. Define infarction: - An area of tissue death that occurs due to lack of oxygen. Define: Ischemia - An inadequate blood supply that decreases availability of oxygen. Define: Angina - Chest pain caused by inadequate supply of oxygen to heart myocardium. Which of the following antigen groups is closely related to the ABO antigens on the red cell membrane? - I and i antigens are related biochemically and spatially to the ABH and Lewis antigens on the red cell membrane. Anti-I is usually an autoantibody. It is common as a benign cold autoagglutinin. Strong anti-I is associated with Mycoplasma pneumonia infection, where it may be associated with cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Anti-I is characterized by its failure to react with cord red cells. Anti-i generally occurs as a cold reactive IgM antibody in the setting of infectious mononucleosis. Distinguishing between T lymphs and B lymphs: -
T lymphocytes are larger and have more vacuoles than B lymphocytes. Define Galactosemia: - Galactosemia is an inherited metabolic disorder that affects an individual's ability to metabolize the sugar galactose effectively. Infants affected by galactosemia typically present with symptoms of lethargy, vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, and jaundice. The presence of galactose in the urine sample is not picked up by the glucose pad on the urine test strip, however, the clinitest result is positive since it can detect different sugars in the urine, including galactose. True lactose intolerance will usually not become symptomatic in children until they are at least 3 years old (usually after age 7). Also, lactose intolerance is associated with diarrhea, but not closely associated with vomiting. Distinguishing characteristics of Shigella species: - Shigella species generally do not usually exhibit motility. Shigella spp. are gram-negative rods which is known to cause Shigellosis. This is an infectious disease caused by Shigella which is associated with diarrhea, fever and stomach cramps. For which determination is the Brilliant cresyl blue used MOST often? - Reticulocytes Immature erythrocytes, or reticulocytes, contain nuclear remnants of RNA. To detect the presence of this RNA, the red cells must be stained while they are still living, in a process called supravital staining. With supravital staining, the RNA appears as a reticulum within the red cell. Multiple ring forms are most frequently seen in which Plasmodium? - falciparum Multiple ring forms are most frequently seen in Plasmodium falciparum. The trophozoite develops into a schizont made up of multiple ring forms (also known as merozoites) via schizogony, or asexual replication. The schizont then matures which causes the rupture of the erythrocytes- releasing merozoites into the circulation which in turn infect other erythrocytes Define Acute phase proteins: - What percentage of dietary iron is normally absorbed daily? - 5% to 15% A patient experiences a mild allergic reaction to a transfusion, including urticaria, erythema (skin redness), and itching. What is the most likely source of the allergen? - Plasma proteins Mild allergic reactions result from a patient's hypersensitivity to soluble allergens in the plasma of the donor unit. The blood recipient forms antibodies to these allergens that are bound to IgE on mast cells and cause the release of histamines. Allergen substances may be drugs or food consumed by the blood donor.
Indole test Ringed sideroblast: - The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are: - Basophiles Dolichos biflorus: - Anti-A1 lectin is extracted from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus. This reagent will agglutinate A1 cells, but not A2 cells Myelodysplastic syndromes can Best be described as: - A qualitative disorder of erythroid, myeloid and/ or megakaryoctic cell series Thyroid Disorders: - FAB M5: - Acute monoblastic leukemia FAB M1: - Acute myeloblastic leukemia without maturaation FAB M3: - Acute Promyelocytic leukemia FAB M4: - Acute myelomonocytic leukemia Criteria for blood donation (Age, hematocrit, blood pressure, pulse and temperature): - 17, 35%, no greater than 180/100, 50-100 beats per minutes and not greater than 99. degrees Adiponectin: - Is aprotective cytokine. This cytokine is anti-inflammatory and increases insulin sensitivity. Adiponectin is usually decreased in obesity Metabolic syndrome: - Includes high blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist and abnormal cholesterol levels In patients with suspected primary hypothyroidism associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, one would eexpect the following laboratory test results: T4___? TSH___? and TRH stimulation______? - decreased, increased, increased
In an adult where does hematopoiesis occurs? - Vertebrae, skull, proximal ends of long bones, ribs and pelvis in adults Granulocyte concentrates MUST be administered within _____ of collection: - 24 hours Patients at risk for developing TA-GVHD: - Neonates less than 4 months old, fetuses, recipients with a congenital of acquired immunodeficiency, such as bone marrow or stem cell recipients and patients receiving chemotherapy and recipients of donor units from a blood relative Iron deficiency anemia: - Dubin-Johnson Syndrome: - An autosomal recessive disorder that causes an increase of conjugated bilirubin without elevation of liver enzymes (ALT, AST) Crigler-Najjar syndrome: - Associated with increased levelss of bilirubin in the blood as teh disorder affect the etabolism of bilirubin Gilbert's syndrome: - Causes an otherwise harmless jaundice, which does not require treatment, caused by hyperbilirubinemia Distingush between Pappenheimer bodies an Howell-Jolly bodies: - Prussian blue stain would help differentiate between the two. Prussian blue stains iron. Pappenheimer bodies, which contain iron, will stain blue. Howell-Jolly bodies will not stain with Prussian blue because they do no contain iron. Both Howell-Jolly bodies and Pappenheimer bodies will stain with Wright-Giemsa stain. Symptomes of Acute leukemia: - Acute leukemia is associated with bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly, and swollen lymph nodes. In addition, infections (causing fevers) and bleeding are common. A high white blood cell count with man blasts in the peripheral blood and bone marrow, along with a low platelet and rbc count are also highly associated with this condition. Differentiate between group D streptococcus, Group D enterococcus, Group B strep and Group A: - Group D streptococcus (bile esculin +, 6.5% NaCl -, PYR -) Group D enterococcus (bile esculin +, 6.5% NaCl +, PYR +) Group B strep (bile esculin -, 6.5% NaCl variable, PYR -) Group A strep is beta hemolytic
Causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency: - Pericious anemia in relapse, Patients on chronic hemodialysis and hodgkin disease T lymphocytes that possess the CD8 surface marker mediate which of the following T-cell functions? - Cytotoxic T cells, which are capable of destroying targets such as tumor cells and virus- infected cells, bear the CD8 surface marker, while the other cell types listed ( delayed type hypersensitivity, regulatory and helper) are positive for the CD4 surface marker Intrinsic Pathway: - Prekallikrein, heavy molecular weight kinogen, XII, XI, X, IX, VIII, V, II and I Measured by APTT Leukmoid Reaction: - Vitamin K Factors: - factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX and X. Anticoagulation proteins: proteins C, S Christmas Disease: - Deficiency in Factor IX Amorphous urates is found in: - Acidic pH urine Amorphous phosphate crystals are found in: - Amorphous phosphate, triple phosphate (ammonium magnesium phosphate), calcium phosphate, and ammonium urate crystals are frequently found in alkaline urine specimens Which method is the gold standard for ANA detection: - Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or colorzyme NASBA - Nucleic acid sequence based amplification (NASBA) is a method in molecular biology which is used to amplify RNA sequences Used to monitor viral load in HIV paitents Which condition will show an increased PT with a normal aPTT? - Factor VII deficiency A biomarker with high sensitivity: - accurately identifies the presence of disease and hos few false-negatives
A biomarker with a high specificity: - accurately detects the absence of disease and has few false-positives Leukemoid Reaction Lab Results: - A high white blood cell count, usually 50-100 x109/L with a left shift is a common finding in leukemoid reactions. In addition, a key feature of a leukemoid reaction is a high LAP score Low LAP score: - Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria, CML Tay-Sachs Disease: - A rare inherited disorder characterized by the near-total deficiency of the enzyme N- acetylbetahexosaminidase A. Term that means varying degree of leukocytosis with a shift to the left and occasional nucleated red cell in the peripheral blood: - Leukoerythroblastosis Alder-Reilly inclusions: - Mucopolysaccarids Sodium nitroprusside on a urine reagent strip reacts with: - Acetoacetic (diacetic) acid- ketones Glucose levels whole blood, serum and CSF: - serum>whole blood>CSF Increased numbers of basophils are often seen in: - Chronic myelocytic leukemia HLA antibodies are: - HLA antibodies are formed in response to pregnancy, transfusion or transplantation and are therefore not naturally occurring. They are associated with febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions and TRALI. They are directed against antigens found on granulocytes and other cells such as platelets. Which of the following combinations is useful for confirming the presence of extended spectrum beta-lactamases in E coli? - Extended spectrum beta lactamases (ESBL) are inhibited by clavulanic acid. Confirmatory tests of the presence of ESBL are based on the enhanced activity of a beta-lactam antibiotic, usually cefotaxime or ceftazidime, when it is tested with clavulanic acid compared to the activity of the betalactam tested alone. Low PCO2: - Represents alkalosis
increased vasocontriction CD34 - Best associated with stem cells, present on undifferentiated pluipotential hemopoietic stem cell. CD34 is a cell surface glycoprotein and functions as a cell-cell adhesion factor Hemophilia B or Christmas disease is the results of a hereditary deficiency in which coagulation factor: - Factor IX Which factors is involved in the initial contact phase of the intrinsic pathway: - Factor XII, fitzgerald factor (HMWK), and fletcher factor prekallikrein Lab values of Wilson's Disease: - low values of plasma ceruloplasmin, increased urine copper and increased serum copper The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is: - Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts Blood reaction grades; 1+, 2+, 3+ and 4+ - 1+: reaction has numerous small clumps and cloudy red supernatant 2+: has many medium-sized clumps and clear supernatant 3+: has several large clumps and clear supernatant 4+: has one solid clump, no free cells, and clear supernatant A hapten is only antigenic when it is coupled with which of the following: - Proteins The function of the major lipid components of the very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport: - Endogenous triglycerides Which leukemia is characterized by immature cells that are Sudan black B positive with discrete fin granules, peroxidase negative, PAS variable, strongly alpha naphthyl acetate esterase positive and muramidase positive? - Acute myelomonoctic (AML) Thalassemias are characterized by: - Decreased rate of globin synthesis Hereditary deficiency of early complement components (C1, C4 and C2) is associated with: - Lupus erythematosus like syndrome Oval fat bodies are: - Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
t(8,21) - AML (M2) M0 - Myeloblast without differentiation M1 - Myeloblast with minimal maturation M2 - Myeloblast with maturation M3 - Promyelocyte M4 - Myeloblast and monoblast m5 - monoblast M6 - Erythrocytic series (erythroleukemia) M7 - Megakaryocytic (megakaryocytic leukemia) Blood Gas Reference Ranges: - pH: 7.35-7. pCO2: 35-45 mm Hg HCO3: 22-26 mM/L pO2: 85-105 mmHg Respiratory Acidosis Metabolic Acidosis - All values except pH increased (HCO3, CO2 and pCO2) All values decreased (pH, HCO3, CO2 and pCO2) Respiratory Alkalosis Metabolic Alkalosis - pH increased, all others decreased (HCO3, pCO2 and CO2) All values increased (pH, HCO3, CO2 and pCO2) Which of the following blood components contains the most Factor VIII concentration relative to volume? - Cryoprecipitated AHF
