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APEA Practice Exam | Comprehensive Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 With 100% Verified Solutions A liability policy that pays claims even after the policy is no longer active is termed: a) Claims-made policy b) Tail coverage c) Liability protection d) "all-protect" - B A patient you are caring for in your clinic has Medicare Part B. What does this mean? a) The federal government will pay for his visit to your clinic today b) His Medicare benefit covers outpatient services c) He will have to pay a copay for his visit today d) His prescriptions will be partly paid for today - B Certification a) Is required in all 50 states b) Validates competence c) Is recognized by all 50 states d) Provides for title protection - B A liability policy that pays claims only during the period that the policy is active is termed: a) Claims-made policy b) Tail coverage c) Liability protection d) Bobtail coverage - A The Medicaid health program is: a) Funded with premiums from participants
b) Covers an unlimited number of adult visits c) Funded by both state and federal governments d) Basically the same from state to state - C Licensure is: a) Used to establish a designated level of professional competence b) Contigent on certification c) Intended to limit entry in the profession d) Necessary for reimbursement - A Prescriptive authority: a) Is a right of every practicing nurse practitioner b) Varies from state to state c) Is not part of the consensus model d) Is dependent on certification - B An FNP has agreed to participate in the Medicare health insurance program. Medicare pays 80% of the charges billed for a clinic visit. What can be done about the other 20% that is owed? a: The NP can bill the patient for a percentage of the remainder b: The NP is prohibited from billing the patient c: The NP can collect 90% if billed incident to the MD d: The NP can resubmit the bill for additional payment - A A patient you are examining in the clinic states he has Medicare Part A only. What does this mean? a: Your visit will be reimbursed by the federal government b: Your visit will be reimbursed if you bill incident to the physician c: Only hospital visits are covered d: He desires cost-effective medication - C
a: Serum creatinine b: Presence of proteinuria c: Glomerular filtration rate d: Quantity of urine produced in 24 hours - C A 26yo female presents with flank pain that waxes and wanes. What finding on the UA should direct the NP's next action? a: Blood b: Nitrites c: Leukocytes d: Positive nitrates and hematuria - A Ciprofloxacin given to treat a UTI would be contraindicated in a: a: Pregnant patient b: 19year old female c: Patient with hypertension d: Patient with pyelonephritis - A A 44yo is dx with a UTI. Which bacteria count collected mid-stream clean catch supports a dx of UTI? a: >10,000 bacteria b: >25,000 bacteria c: >50,000 bacteria d: >100,000 bacteria - D A 22yo male patient has sx of burning with urination. Which assessment below is the least important at this time? a: Body temperature b: Full genital exam c: Abdominal exam
d: Assessment of CVA tenderness - C A 27yo asymptomatic male presents with generalized lymphadenopathy. He has multiple sexual partners and infrequently uses condoms. Of the following choices, what test should be performed? a: HIV test b: RPR c: Lymph node biopsy d: Sedimentation rate - A Chancroid is considered a cofactor for transmission of: a: HIV b: Gonorrhea c: Chlamydia d: Trichomatosis - A Which factor has the greatest impact on HIV transmission? a: Viral load b: Type of sexual activity c: Presence of other STIs d: Patient gender - A A 21yo female patient presents with six 0.5cm HPV lesions on her vulva. An appropriate treatment option for this patient would be: a: Acetic acid b: Colposcopy c: Podophyllin d: Acyclovir - C A 26yo female has been dx with gonorrhea. How should she be managed?
Which laboratory abnormality commonly accompanies hypothyroidism? a: Hyperprolactinemia b: Dyslipidemia c: Polycythemia d: Hypernatremia - B A 16yo is dx with primary dysmenorrhea. She has taken OTC ibuprofen in 800mg increments every 8 hours for the past 3 months during her periods with minimal relief. Which intervention will provide the greatest relief of her dysmenorrhea sx? a: 30 minutes of regular exercise daily b: Daily multivitamin with B12 supplementation c: Combined oral contraceptives d: Flurbiprofen during menses - C A patient who is scheduled for pelvic exam with pap should be advised to avoid douching, sexual intercourse, and tampon use before her exam for how long? a: 1 week b: 36 hours c: 48 hours d: 24 hours - C A 26yo HIV-positive patient presents with photophobia and temperature of 103.2F. He complains of headache. On exam, he is unable to demonstrate full extension of the knee when his hip is flexed. Which choice below is the most likely diagnosis? a: Septic arthritis b: Septic bursitis c: Meningitis d: Pneumocystis infection - C
A patient has suspected serotonin syndrome. How can this be diagnosed? a: Clinical exam and index of suspicion b: Elevated CK c: Elevated white count and C-reactive protein d: CT of the brain - A The greatest risk of transmitting HIV infection is during: a: Late infection stage b: High viral load periods c: The time that detectable antibody is present d: The acute phase - B A 35yo female has never had an abnormal pap and has regular periodic screening. If she has a normal pap with normal HPV testing today, when should she have her next cervical cancer screening? a: 5 years b: 3 years c: 2-3 years d: 1 year - A A patient has the following lab values. This indicates that he: HbsAg-Negative Anti-HBc-negative Anti-HBs-positive a: Needs immunization for Hep B b: Is immune to Hep b c: Has chronic Hep B d: Has acute Hep B and needs immunization - B A patient demonstrates leukocytosis. This means he:
a: Anemia of chronic disease b: Vitamin B12 deficiency c: Iron deficiency anemia d: Thalessemia - C A 25yo male patient with subacute bacterial epididymitis should be treated initially with: a: Ice and scrotal support b: NSAIDs only c: Doxycycline d: An oral quilolone - C A patient has used a high potency topical steroid cream for years to treat psoriasis exacerbations when they occur. She presents today stating "this cream just doesn't work anymore". What work describes this? a: Lichenification b: Tolerance c: Tachyphylaxis Rebound effect - C A 2yo with sickle cell anemia (SCA) should receive which immunization? a: All routine childhood immunizations at an accelerated rate b: All routine childhood immunizations at a decreased rate c: All childhood immunizations at the usual time d: Immunizations should be limited in this group - C A sexually active male presents with epididymitis. What finding is likely: a: Scrotal edema b: Recent history of heavy physical activity c: Dysuria
d: Hematuria - B A 34yo has been placed on Fluoxetine and valproate for manic depressive sx. He has had great improvement in his sx and has returned to work. The psychiatrist released him to your care. What must be monitored in this patient? a: Valproate levels, platelet count, liver functions b: Liver functions, renal functions c: Valproate levels, Hgb, BUN, Creatinine d: Renal functions, platelet count, BUN, creatinine - A What are the most common signs and sx associated with mononucleosis? a: Rash and sore throat b: Splenomegaly and fever c: Cough and pharyngitis d: Fatigue and lymphadenopathy - D A 60yo has been on NSAIDs and hydrocodone for the past 48 hours after a shoulder displacement. He has complaints of blood in the toilet paper when wiping after a bowel movement this morning. What should be suspected? a: He has a GI bleed from his NSAIDs b: He could have hemorrhoids c: He does not have a GI bleed. The blood is from tissue friability from the NSAIDs d: This is unrelated to the NSAIDs or the hydrocodone - B A 24yo female patient has been diagnosed with an uncomplicated UTI. Which assessment below is least important at this time? a: Vaginal exam b: Assessment of CVA tenderness c: Abdominal exam d: Body temperature - A
b: Lead anemia c: Iron deficiency anemia d: Pernicious anemia - C Which finding below is considered to be "within normal limits"? a: Blood pressure of 160/70 in a 75-year old b: Cholesterol level of 205 in a 15 year old c: An INR of 2.2 in a patient taking Warfarin for afib d: A diastolic murmur in an 18-year old - C A patient presents with sx of influenza during flu season. He has not received his influenza immunization. What should be used to help diagnose influenza in him? a: Based on symptoms b: CBC c: A nasal swab d: A nasal culture - C A young female adult presents with vaginal discharge and itching. Besides trichomoniasis and yeast, what else should be included in the differential? a: Syphilis b: Herpes genitalis c: Chlamydia d: Bacterial vaginosis - D A mammogram in a healthy 50 year old is an example of: a: Quaternary prevention b: Tertiary prevention c: Secondary prevention d: Primary prevention - C
In a patient with mononucleosis, which laboratory abnormality is most common? a: Elevated liver enzymes b: A decreased total white cell count c: Elevated monocytes d: Lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes - D A 15yo is 10% below her ideal body weight. Her CBC demonstrates a microcytic hypochromic anemia. Which complaint might be common in this patient? a: Hair loss b: Muscle cramps c: Dizziness when standing d: Headaches - C A 73-year old female is found to be anemic. Which diagnosis is likely based on the labs below: MCV: 103 (80-95) MCH: 28 (27-31) MCHC: 34% RDW: 17% (11-14.5%) a: Vitamin B12 deficiency b: Bacterial infection c: Thalassemia d: Iron deficiency anemia - A A patient has been dx with mononucleosis. Which statement is correct? a: Cervical lymphadenopathy may be prominent b: He cannot get co-infected with strep c: Splenomegaly is more likely than not d: He is likely an adolescent male - A
b: Cimetidine, pravastatin, aspirin c: Naproxen, metformin, aspirin d: Terbanifine, atorvastatin, rosuvastatin - D MMR immunization is safe to give in children: a: Who are allergic to eggs b: Younger than 1 year of age c: When given every 5 years d: If they are at least 5 years of age - A The first sign that a male child is experiencing sexual maturation is: a: Increase in testicular size b: Enlargement of the scrotum c: Increase in the length of the penis d: Scrotal and penile changes - A A child with a sandpaper-textured rash likely has: a: Rubeola b: Strep infection c: Varicella d: Roseola - B The recommended time to initiate screening for cervical cancer is: a: 3 years after first sexual intercourse b: At age 21 c: At age 18 d: Prior to becoming sexually active - B A patient has been dx with Hepatitis A. The most common reported risk factor is:
a: Eating contaminated food b: International travel c: Homosexual activity d: Drinking contaminated water - B A skin lesion that fluoresces under a Wood's lamp is consistent with what microscopic finding? a: Leukocytes b: Hyphae c: Scabies d: Clue cells - B Which is NOT suitable to diagnose shingles if the clinical presentation is not clear? a: CBC b: Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) c: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) d: Tzanck preparation - A A patient reports he has a penicillin allergy. What question regarding the allergy should the FNP ask to determine whether or not a cephalosporin can safely be prescribed? a: What form of penicillin did you take? b: What kind of reaction did you have? c: How long ago was the reaction? d: Have you ever taken a cephalosporin medication before? - B How long should a patient with prostatitis be treated with antibiotics for prostatitis secondary to an STI? a: 14 days or longer b: 7-10 days c: About 5 days d: 3 days - A
A 40yo patient has the following test results. How should they be interpreted? HBsAg-negative Anti-HBs-positive Anti-HBc-negative a: The patient has been immunized b: The patient should consider immunization c: The patient has Hepatitis d: The patient had Hepatitis - A A 23yo male appears in your clinic with a herald patch on his trunk. This lesion is usually associated with: a: Hypothyroidism b: Diabetes c: Folliculitis d: Pityriasis rosea - D A patient's CBC demonstrates anemia. The following lab results most likely indicate: MCV: 74.1 (80-95) MCH: 24 (27-31) MCHC: 33% (32-69%) RDW: 12% (11-14.5%) a: Thalassemia b: Iron deficiency anemia c: Anemia of chronic disease d: Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia - A
