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L ouisiana State University Health
Sciences Center LSUS
(New Orleans, Louisiana)
APEA - Advanced Practice Education
Associates
NP - Nurse Practitioner Exam
Course Title and Number: NP - Nurse Practitioner Exam Exam Title: Board Exam Exam Date: Exam 2024- 2025 Instructor: [Insert Instructor’s Name] Student Name: [Insert Student’s Name] Student ID: [Insert Student ID]
Examination
180 minutes
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APEA - Advanced Practice Education Associates 2024- 2025 Nurse Practitioner APEA - NP Certification Predictor Exam Final Comprehensive Review Questions with Correct Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ | Read All Instructions Carefully and Answer All the Questions Correctly Good Luck: - A nurse inadvertently administers an incorrect medication to a client. Which of these actions should the nurse take first? a. Assess the client. b. Notify the physician. c. Contact the nurse manager. d. Complete an incident report. - Answer>> a. Assess the client. An elderly client who is receiving a blood transfusion develops a rapid bounding pulse and an elevated blood pressure. Which of these actions should a nurse take? a. Add a 5% dextrose solution to the line. b. Raise the head of the bed. c. Stop the transfusion. d. Measure the client's temperature. - Answer>> c. Stop the transfusion. Blood pressure normally decreases during pregnancy, reaching the lowest point during the second or third trimesters and rising there after. Patient education to rise slowly from sitting or lying is important. Low blood glucose may be the etiology, but an oral glucose tolerance test at this point is not indicated. A fasting
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ultimately desquamates. A deep, nonblanching rash on the flexor surfaces of the skin is referred to as pastia lines. A 6 yo had an acute onset of fever, pharyngitis, and headache 2 days ago. Today, he presents with cervical lymphadenopathy and sandpaper textured rash everywhere except on his face. A rapid streptococcal antigen test is positive. The remainder of the assessment in unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most appropriate action? - Answer>> Scarlet fever; treat with antibiotics. This disease is due to infection with Group A Beta- hemolytic streptococcus. The rash is thought to be due to a systemic reaction to the toxin produced by the microorganism. The rash fades with pressure and ultimately desquamates. A deep, nonblanching rash on the flexor surfaces of the skin is referred to as pastia lines. A patient has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is prescribed. When should the nurse practitioner check the patient's TSH? - Answer>> 6 weeks. The half-life of levothyroxine, the treatment of choice for thyroid replacement, is 7 days. The earliest that meaningful changes will be observed is at 4-6 weeks. Therefore, the NP should wait a minimum of 4-6 weeks before checking the patient's TSH. A patient has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is prescribed.
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When should the nurse practitioner check the patient's TSH? - Answer>> 6 weeks. The half-life of levothyroxine, the treatment of choice for thyroid replacement, is 7 days. The earliest that meaningful changes will be observed is at 4-6 weeks. Therefore, the NP should wait a minimum of 4-6 weeks before checking the patient's TSH. A 15 yo malue has a history of cryptorchidism which was surgically repaired. Because of this information, it is essential for the nurse practitioner to teach him about: - Answer>> testicular self-examination. Cryptorchidism, even with surgical repair, is associated with increased risk for testicular cancer. A 15 yo malue has a history of cryptorchidism which was surgically repaired. Because of this information, it is essential for the nurse practitioner to teach him about: - Answer>> testicular self-examination. Cryptorchidism, even with surgical repair, is associated with increased risk for testicular cancer. The treatment of choice for chronic bacterial prostatitis (CBP) is: - Answer>> a flouroquinolone twice daily for 3 weeks to 4 months. The treatment of chice is a flouroquinolone twice daily for 3 weeks to 4 months. The cure rate with Bactrim-DS is only about 30-40%. The treatment of choice for chronic bacterial prostatitis (CBP) is: - Answer>> a flouroquinolone twice daily for 3 weeks to 4 months.
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common finding with right-sided heart failure, rapid growth, and the last trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the S heart sound? - Answer>> The sound is high-pitched and occurs just prior to the S1 heart sound. The S3 heart sound is low-pitched and occurs just after the S2 heart sound. It is produced by rapid ventricular filling and is best auscultated in the mitral area. It is a common finding with right-sided heart failure, rapid growth, and the last trimester of pregnancy. Following the finding of prostate gland abnormalities on DRE, the NP orders the appropriate labs. Whem preparing to review lab reports with the patient, the nurse practitioner knows all of the following are true EXCEPT: - Answer>> normal PSA is 10ng/ml or less. Normal PSA is 4ng/ml or less. PSA levels greater the 4 and less than 10 are associated with BPH. A 10 or greater PSA level suggests prostate cancer. Positive serum acid phosphatase is associated with malignancy of the prostate gland with bone metasasis. Following the finding of prostate gland abnormalities on DRE, the NP orders the appropriate labs. Whem preparing to review lab reports with the patient, the nurse practitioner knows all of the following are true EXCEPT: - Answer>> normal PSA is 10ng/ml or less. Normal PSA is 4ng/ml or less. PSA levels greater the 4 and less than 10 are associated with BPH. A 10 or greater PSA level suggests prostate cancer. Positive serum acid phosphatase is associated with malignancy of the prostate gland with bone metasasis.
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A 66 yo female presents to your clinic. She states that yesterday evening she had chest pain for 20- minutes. Which finding most strongly correlates with myocardial infarction? - Answer>> Elevated Troponin I levels An elevated creatinine kinase (CK) is not diagnostic of a myocardial infarction (MI). CK may be elevated from an IM injection, surgery, ot any type of extensive skeletal muscle trauma or prolonged, strenuous physical exertion. ST segment depression on EKG usually indicates an ischemic myocardium, but, not necessarily, one post-MI. Elevated ST seghments reflect mycardial damage. MB bands are specific for myocardial smooth muscle. If these are elevated, the patient MAY HAVE had a very recent MI. The most accurate marker of cardiac damage, because it is more specific and sensitive than CK MB, is a troponin measurement. A 66 yo female presents to your clinic. She states that yesterday evening she had chest pain for 20- minutes. Which finding most strongly correlates with myocardial infarction? - Answer>> Elevated Troponin I levels An elevated creatinine kinase (CK) is not diagnostic of a myocardial infarction (MI). CK may be elevated from an IM injection, surgery, ot any type of extensive skeletal muscle trauma or prolonged, strenuous physical exertion. ST segment depression on EKG usually indicates an ischemic myocardium, but, not necessarily, one post-MI. Elevated ST seghments reflect mycardial damage. MB bands are specific for
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A 35-yo male presents with a complaint of low pelvic pain, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, and reduced for of stream. The nurse practitioner suspects acute bacterial prostatitis. The NP would appropriately collect all of the following specimens EXCEPT a: sterile in-and-out catheter urine specimen. - Answer>> A sterile in-and- out catheter specimen would identify only organisms in the bladder and would not differentiate between bladder, kidney, or prostate site infection. The sequence for obtaining specimens when prostat infection is suspected is: 1. voided urethral urine, 2. Voided mid-stream bladder urine, and 3. voided post- prostate massage urine. A 35-yo male presents with a complaint of low pelvic pain, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, and reduced for of stream. The nurse practitioner suspects acute bacterial prostatitis. The NP would appropriately collect all of the following specimens EXCEPT a: sterile in-and-out catheter urine specimen. - Answer>> A sterile in-and- out catheter specimen would identify only organisms in the bladder and would not differentiate between bladder, kidney, or prostate site infection. The sequence for obtaining specimens when prostat infection is suspected is: 1. voided urethral urine, 2. Voided mid-stream bladder urine, and 3. voided post- prostate massage urine. A 24 yo female taking an oral contraceptive has missed her last 2 pills. What should the nurse practitioner advise her to do to minimize her risk of pregnancy? -
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Answer>> Double today's dose and tomorrow's dose and use a barrier method for the rest of the month. If 2 mills are missed on consecutive days, the next 2 days' doseages should be doubled and a barrier method recommended for the remainder of the cycle. A 24 yo female taking an oral contraceptive has missed her last 2 pills. What should the nurse practitioner advise her to do to minimize her risk of pregnancy? - Answer>> Double today's dose and tomorrow's dose and use a barrier method for the rest of the month. If 2 mills are missed on consecutive days, the next 2 days' doseages should be doubled and a barrier method recommended for the remainder of the cycle. A 50yo, non-smoker, with no co-morbidity presents to the clinica and is diagnosed with pna. His vital signs are normal except for temperature of 101.6 degrees. A sputum specimen is collected and sent for culture and sensitivity. What action should the nurse practitioner take today? - Answer>> Start Clarithromycin (Biaxin) 500mg 2 times a day for 10 to 14 days. Most treatment guidelines for outpatient pna in non- smokers without co-morbidity and 60 years of age or younger, recommend erythromycin or another macrolide like Biaxin. Pcn s indicated for patient swith pneumococcal pna and ciprofloxacin is recommended for Legionella species. A 50yo, non-smoker, with no co-morbidity presents to the clinica and is diagnosed with pna. His vital signs are normal except for temperature of 101.6 degrees. A sputum specimen is collected and sent for culture and
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Gynecological consultation is recommended for a patient with a uterus greater that 12 weeks gestational size, significant anemia (hct <30),. o a normal endometrial biopsy with failure to respond to hormonal therapy. What maternal situation is considered an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding? - Answer>> Early HIV detection There are few absolute contraindications to breastfeeding. HIV infection and IV drug abuse are 2 contraindications. What maternal situation is considered an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding? - Answer>> Early HIV detection There are few absolute contraindications to breastfeeding. HIV infection and IV drug abuse are 2 contraindications. A 21 yo college student presents to the sudent health center with copious, markedly purulent discharge from her left eye. The nurse practitioner should suspect: - Answer>> gonococcal conjunctivitis. A purulent and copious discharge should alert the nurse practitioner to the likely possibility of gonococcal or chlamydial conjunctivitis. Noth require systemic anitbiotic treatment and immediate referral to an opthalmologist for evaluation. A 21 yo college student presents to the sudent health center with copious, markedly purulent discharge from
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her left eye. The nurse practitioner should suspect: - Answer>> gonococcal conjunctivitis. A purulent and copious discharge should alert the nurse practitioner to the likely possibility of gonococcal or chlamydial conjunctivitis. Noth require systemic anitbiotic treatment and immediate referral to an opthalmologist for evaluation. Babies should begin oral iron supplementation: - Answer>> 4-6 months of age. Generally, full term infants who are breadt-fed have sufficient stores of iron to last through the first 4- months of life. Earlier supplementation may be m=necessary for premature infants, infants who are breastyfed exclusively beyond the first 6 months of age, and infants who begin drinking cow's milk prior to 1 year of age. Babies should begin oral iron supplementation: - Answer>> 4-6 months of age. Generally, full term infants who are breadt-fed have sufficient stores of iron to last through the first 4- months of life. Earlier supplementation may be m=necessary for premature infants, infants who are breastyfed exclusively beyond the first 6 months of age, and infants who begin drinking cow's milk prior to 1 year of age. Which item is NOT implicated in erectile dysfunction (ED)? - Answer>> Urinary tract infection (UTI) Many systemic disease like diabetes, hypo/hyperthyroidism, Cushing's syndrome can result in ED> Many medications can cause ED, particularly
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to chronic emphysema or chronic bronchitis, however, TLC is normal or only slightly increased with chronic bronchitis. Physical exam findings consistent with emphysema include all of the following EXCEPT: - Answer>> pallor and cyanosis of the mucosa and nailbeds. Pallor and cyanosis is typical of chronic bronchitis (type B COPD, the "blue boater". Emphysema (Type A COPD, the "pink puffer") is not associated with pallor or cyanosis. Increased AP dianeter produces a "barrel chest". The normal chest is elliptical whereas the barrel chest is round. The muscles of the thorax appear thin and wasted while the accessory muscles of respiration are hypertrophied. Breath sounds are minished and cough is weak and ineffective. Physical exam findings consistent with emphysema include all of the following EXCEPT: - Answer>> pallor and cyanosis of the mucosa and nailbeds. Pallor and cyanosis is typical of chronic bronchitis (type B COPD, the "blue boater". Emphysema (Type A COPD, the "pink puffer") is not associated with pallor or cyanosis. Increased AP dianeter produces a "barrel chest". The normal chest is elliptical whereas the barrel chest is round. The muscles of the thorax appear thin and wasted while the accessory muscles of respiration are hypertrophied. Breath sounds are minished and cough is weak and ineffective. Which laboratory test is useful in the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion? - Answer>> Serial quantitative beta-huma chorionic gonadotropin levels.
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Serial quantitative beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels are the most useful for diagnosing spontaneous abortion. The levels progressively decline. Which laboratory test is useful in the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion? - Answer>> Serial quantitative beta-huma chorionic gonadotropin levels. Serial quantitative beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels are the most useful for diagnosing spontaneous abortion. The levels progressively decline. The most acceoted recommendation regarding skin cancer prevention is: - Answer>> avoidance of excessive sun exposure. Avoidance of excessive sun exposure is the most accepted recommendation for prevention of skin cancer. All the other items are recommended by particular groups, but are not as widely accepted. Clinicians should remain alert for suspicious lesions in fair-skinned men and women >65 years, those with atypical moles, those with > 50 moles. These groups have a substantially increased risk for melanoma. The most acceoted recommendation regarding skin cancer prevention is: - Answer>> avoidance of excessive sun exposure. Avoidance of excessive sun exposure is the most accepted recommendation for prevention of skin cancer. All the other items are recommended by particular groups, but are not as widely accepted. Clinicians should remain alert for suspicious lesions in fair-skinned men and women >65 years, those with
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The diagnosis of Meniere's disease is based on: - Answer>> The exclusion of other pathologies. Most cases of Meniere's disease are idiopathic and the diagnosis is based on the exclusion of other pathologies. Central vertigo is present with many vestibular problems. Low frequency hearing loss is more commonly associated with Meniere's disease. MRI is helpful to rule out acoustic neurome, but not to diagnose Meniere's disease. The reason beta-adrenergic blockers should be avoided in patients with diabetes is because they may: - Answer>> Mask symptoms of hypoglycemia. Beta blockers may mask the peripheral signs of hypoglycemia like jitteriness and tachycardia. However, beta blockers will not mask diaphoresis. Therefore diabetics on betablockers should be taught to look for this specific symptom as a possible indication of hypoglycemia. The reason beta-adrenergic blockers should be avoided in patients with diabetes is because they may: - Answer>> Mask symptoms of hypoglycemia. Beta blockers may mask the peripheral signs of hypoglycemia like jitteriness and tachycardia. However, beta blockers will not mask diaphoresis. Therefore diabetics on betablockers should be taught to look for this specific symptom as a possible indication of hypoglycemia. An adult female patient is seeking information about her ideal weight. She is 5 feet 7 inches tall. Using the
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"height-weight formula" what is her ideal body weight?
- Answer>> 135 lbs The height-weight formula is a quick method of determining ideal weight. Females allow 100 lbs for the first 5 feet of height plus 5 lbs for each additional inch. Males allow 106 lbs for the first 5 feet plus 6 lbs for each additional inch. This method can only be used as an estimate because it does not account for body composition or age. An adult female patient is seeking information about her ideal weight. She is 5 feet 7 inches tall. Using the "height-weight formula" what is her ideal body weight? - Answer>> 135 lbs The height-weight formula is a quick method of determining ideal weight. Females allow 100 lbs for the first 5 feet of height plus 5 lbs for each additional inch. Males allow 106 lbs for the first 5 feet plus 6 lbs for each additional inch. This method can only be used as an estimate because it does not account for body composition or age. The nurs practitioner is caring for a 19 year old female college student with iron deficiency anemia secondary to heavy menstrual bleeding. An appropriate INITIAL treatment for this patient is: - Answer>> Oral ferrous sulfate. With iron deficiency anemia, iron stores of the body must be replenished as well as the underlying cause corrected. A daily iron supplement is used initially. The most common form is ferrous sulfate. Intramuscular iron dextran is usually not needed, but may be required in the presence of a malabsorption disorder,
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