APEA NP MyQbank Management New Completed Questions with Rationales 2024, Exams of Nursing

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APEA NP

MyQbank Management

Completed Questions with

Rationales

1. A patient presents with symptoms of fatigue, weight loss, and a persistent cough. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Asthma B) Tuberculosis C) Bronchitis D) Common Cold

Correct Answer: B) Tuberculosis

Rationale: The combination of fatigue, weight loss, and a persistent cough is highly suggestive of tuberculosis, especially if the patient has a history of exposure or a positive skin test.

2. In evaluating a treatment plan for hypertension, which outcome indicates the most effective management? A) Patient reports feeling more energetic. B) Blood pressure readings consistently below 140/90 mmHg. C) Patient adheres to medication schedule without reminders. D) Patient's diet is low in sodium.

Correct Answer: B) Blood pressure readings consistently below 140/

mmHg. Rationale: The primary goal in managing hypertension is to lower blood pressure to prevent complications; readings consistently below 140/ mmHg indicate effective management.

B) Appendicitis C) Pancreatitis D) Peptic Ulcer Disease

Correct Answer: B) Appendicitis

Rationale: Appendicitis is a common and urgent medical condition that should be ruled out first in patients presenting with abdominal pain.

6. When evaluating the effectiveness of a new asthma management plan, which patient-reported outcome is most indicative of success? A) Reduced use of rescue inhaler B) Fewer days missed from work or school C) Improved peak flow readings D) Decreased nocturnal symptoms

Correct Answer: A) Reduced use of rescue inhaler

Rationale: A decrease in the need for a rescue inhaler suggests better overall control of asthma symptoms.

7. In developing a differential diagnosis for a patient with chest pain, which condition should be ruled out immediately due to its potential severity? A) Costochondritis B) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) C) Myocardial infarction D) Pneumonia

Correct Answer: C) Myocardial infarction

Rationale: Due to the life-threatening nature of myocardial infarction, it should be ruled out immediately in patients presenting with chest pain.

8. A patient with heart failure is being monitored for treatment efficacy. Which of the following is a key indicator of improved cardiac function? A) Weight gain B) Decreased peripheral edema C) Increased shortness of breath D) Higher blood pressure

Correct Answer: B) Decreased peripheral edema

Rationale: Decreased peripheral edema suggests reduced fluid retention, indicating improved cardiac function in heart failure patients.

9. When generating a plan of care for a patient with depression, which of the following interventions is essential? A) Regular physical activity B) Antidepressant medication adherence C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Rationale: A comprehensive approach to treating depression includes physical activity, medication adherence, and cognitive-behavioral therapy to address various aspects of the condition.

A) Complete blood count (CBC) B) International normalized ratio (INR) C) Liver function tests D) Serum electrolytes

Correct Answer: B) International normalized ratio (INR)

Rationale: INR is crucial for monitoring the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy in patients with a history of pulmonary embolism.

13. When considering a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS), which symptom would be most indicative of the disease? A) Intermittent claudication B) Visual disturbances C) Chronic cough D) Diarrhea

Correct Answer: B) Visual disturbances

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as optic neuritis, are common in MS and can be an early sign of the disease.

14. In a patient with suspected acute pancreatitis, which laboratory finding would confirm the diagnosis? A) Elevated amylase and lipase levels B) Decreased white blood cell count C) Low serum calcium

D) High blood glucose levels

Correct Answer: A) Elevated amylase and lipase levels

Rationale: Amylase and lipase are digestive enzymes that are typically elevated in the blood during acute pancreatitis.

15. A nurse practitioner is formulating a differential diagnosis for a patient with new-onset seizures. Which of the following conditions should be considered? A) Migraine B) Epilepsy C) Syncope D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Rationale: New-onset seizures can be a symptom of various conditions, including migraine, epilepsy, and syncope, and all should be considered in the differential diagnosis.

16. Which outcome measure is most relevant when evaluating the success of a smoking cessation program? A) Patient's self-reported reduction in cravings B) Number of cigarettes smoked per day C) Use of nicotine replacement therapy D) Carbon monoxide levels in exhaled breath

Correct Answer: B) Number of cigarettes smoked per day

Question: A 45-year-old patient presents with symptoms of persistent cough, weight loss, and night sweats. Which of the following initial diagnostic tests is most appropriate? A) Chest X-ray B) Complete blood count C) Pulmonary function tests D) Sputum culture

Correct Answer: A) Chest X-ray

Rationale: Chest X-ray is often the initial imaging study of choice for evaluating pulmonary symptoms. Question: In a patient with suspected diabetes, which of the following lab tests would confirm the diagnosis? A) Fasting plasma glucose B) HbA1c C) Oral glucose tolerance test D) Random plasma glucose

Correct Answer: B) HbA1c

Rationale: HbA1c provides an average of blood sugar levels over the past 2 - 3 months, aiding in the diagnosis of diabetes.

Question: When developing a care plan for a patient with hypertension, which lifestyle modification should be prioritized? A) Sodium restriction B) Weight loss C) Exercise regimen D) Smoking cessation

Correct Answer: A) Sodium restriction

Rationale: Sodium restriction plays a crucial role in managing hypertension by reducing fluid retention and blood pressure. Question: A patient presents with acute abdominal pain. Which of the following diagnostic imaging modalities is best for evaluating gallbladder pathology? A) Abdominal ultrasound B) CT scan C) MRI D) HIDA scan

Correct Answer: A) Abdominal ultrasound

Rationale: Abdominal ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality for evaluating gallbladder diseases due to its high sensitivity.

A) Family history B) BMI C) Blood type D) Allergy history

Correct Answer: A) Family history

Rationale: Family history plays a vital role in assessing genetic predispositions to cardiovascular diseases. Question: In a patient with suspected appendicitis, which physical examination finding is most indicative of this condition? A) McBurney's point tenderness B) Rovsing's sign C) Psoas sign D) Obturator sign

Correct Answer: A) McBurney's point tenderness

Rationale: McBurney's point tenderness is a classic sign of appendicitis, indicating inflammation in the area. Question: What is the primary goal of treatment for a patient with type 2 diabetes? A) Achieving euglycemia

B) Preventing complications C) Reversing insulin resistance D) Normalizing lipid profile

Correct Answer: B) Preventing complications

Rationale: The primary focus in managing type 2 diabetes is preventing long-term complications associated with the disease. Question: Which medication is commonly used as first-line therapy for patients with major depressive disorder? A) Sertraline B) Lorazepam C) Methylphenidate D) Haloperidol

Correct Answer: A) Sertraline

Rationale: Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed for depression. Question: When evaluating a patient for possible rheumatoid arthritis, which lab test is most specific for this condition? A) Rheumatoid factor B) Anti-CCP antibodies

Correct Answer: A) Urea breath test

Rationale: The urea breath test is a non-invasive method to detect Helicobacter pylori infection in patients with peptic ulcers. Question: Which of the following is a key consideration when prescribing antibiotics for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia? A) Age of the patient B) Allergy history C) Recent travel history D) Blood type

Correct Answer: B) Allergy history

Rationale: Allergy history is crucial to avoid prescribing antibiotics to which the patient may be allergic. Question: In a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome, which cardiac enzyme is typically elevated within the first few hours of symptom onset? A) Troponin I B) CK-MB C) Myoglobin D) LDH

Correct Answer: C) Myoglobin

Rationale: Myoglobin is an early marker of myocardial injury, rising rapidly after the onset of symptoms. Question: When evaluating a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis, which imaging study is the initial test of choice? A) Compression ultrasound B) CT angiography C) Venography D) D-dimer

Correct Answer: A) Compression ultrasound

Rationale: Compression ultrasound is highly sensitive and specific for diagnosing deep vein thrombosis. Question: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Parkinson's disease? A) Bradykinesia B) Choreiform movements C) Ataxia D) Myoclonus

Correct Answer: A) Bradykinesia

Question: Which of the following is a key component of managing chronic pain in older adults? A) Avoiding opioid medications B) Increasing physical activity C) Using NSAIDs as first-line treatment D) Considering non-pharmacological interventions

Correct Answer: D) Considering non-pharmacological interventions

Rationale: Non-pharmacological interventions play a crucial role in managing chronic pain in older adults while minimizing the risk of adverse effects associated with medications.

1. What is the first step in making a diagnosis in a patient presenting with complex symptoms? A. Ordering additional diagnostic tests B. Taking a comprehensive patient history C. Referring the patient to a specialist D. Prescribing empiric treatment

**Correct Answer: B - Taking a comprehensive patient history is crucial

in making an accurate diagnosis as it provides valuable information about the patient's symptoms, medical history, and potential risk factors. This information helps in generating a differential diagnosis.**

2. When developing a differential diagnosis, the NP should consider:

A. Only common illnesses presented in the literature B. Only the symptoms reported by the patient C. A comprehensive list of potential diagnoses based on symptoms, history, and physical examination D. Involve the patient in the process

**Correct Answer: C - Developing a comprehensive list of differential

diagnoses based on various aspects including symptoms, history, and physical exam findings ensures a thorough evaluation and consideration of all potential causes. Involving the patient in the process helps in shared decision-making.**

3. In formulating a management plan, which step is essential for effective patient care? A. Prescribing the same treatment for all patients with similar symptoms B. Ignoring patient preferences and values C. Tailoring the treatment plan to the individual patient D. Referring the patient to another provider

**Correct Answer: C - Tailoring the treatment plan to the individual

patient is crucial for providing personalized care that considers the patient's preferences, values, and specific needs. This approach improves patient outcomes and satisfaction with care.**

4. Which of the following is a key component of evaluating treatment outcomes in a patient? A. Only relying on objective measures B. Ignoring patient-reported outcomes