APEA 3P Pathophysiology Latest Completed Exam 2024, Exams of Nursing

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APEA 3P

Pathophysiology

Latest Completed Exam

1. Which of the following best describes the term "pathophysiology"? A) The study of the effects of drugs on the body B) The study of how diseases affect the body's normal function C) The study of how lifestyle choices impact overall health D) The study of psychological factors in disease development

Correct Answer: B) The study of how diseases affect the body's normal

function Rationale: Pathophysiology is the study of how diseases disrupt the normal functioning of the body.

2. Developmental physiology focuses on: A) The study of disease progression B) The study of how organs and systems develop and function from conception through adulthood C) The study of environmental factors on health D) The study of mental health disorders

Correct Answer: B) The study of how organs and systems develop and

function from conception through adulthood Rationale: Developmental physiology examines how organs and systems evolve and function throughout the lifespan.

B) Complete blood count (CBC) C) MRI of the brain D) Stool culture

Correct Answer: A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Rationale: An ECG is commonly used to detect abnormalities in the heart's electrical activity, which can indicate coronary artery disease.

6. Which condition is a result of altered psychological health rather than physical health? A) Hypertension B) Major depressive disorder C) Osteoarthritis D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Correct Answer: B) Major depressive disorder

Rationale: Major depressive disorder is a psychological health condition that affects mood and mental well-being.

7. Pathogenesis refers to: A) The study of disease progression B) The study of genetic factors in disease development C) The study of mental health disorders

D) The study of the effects of lifestyle on health

Correct Answer: A) The study of disease progression

Rationale: Pathogenesis focuses on the development and progression of diseases within the body.

8. Which diagnostic study is commonly used to evaluate kidney function? A) CT scan B) Liver function tests C) Urinalysis D) Thyroid function tests

Correct Answer: C) Urinalysis

Rationale: Urinalysis is a diagnostic tool used to assess kidney function through the analysis of urine composition.

9. Which of the following accurately describes the term "manifestations" in pathophysiology? A) Observable signs and symptoms of a disease B) Genetic predisposition to illness C) Expected outcomes of treatment D) Impact of lifestyle choices on health

Rationale: Spirometry is a diagnostic test used to assess lung function and identify respiratory conditions.

12. Altered physical health can result from: A) Genetic factors B) Traumatic experiences C) Nutrition deficiencies D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Rationale: Altered physical health can arise from a variety of factors including genetics, trauma, and nutritional deficiencies.

13. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? A) High blood pressure B) Family history of heart disease C) Regular exercise D) Smoking

Correct Answer: C) Regular exercise

Rationale: Regular exercise is a protective factor against cardiovascular disease, not a risk factor.

14. How does the field of pathophysiology contribute to healthcare practice? A) By focusing on preventive measures B) By studying the underlying mechanisms of diseases C) By promoting alternative medicine practices D) By analyzing patient satisfaction surveys

Correct Answer: B) By studying the underlying mechanisms of diseases

Rationale: Pathophysiology helps healthcare professionals understand the root causes and mechanisms of diseases, guiding treatment and management.

15. An example of a diagnostic study used to assess neurological function is: A) Electroencephalogram (EEG) B) Lipid panel C) Prothrombin time (PT) D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test

Correct Answer: A) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

Rationale: An EEG is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate electrical activity in the brain and diagnose neurological conditions.

16. The concept of "risk factors" in pathophysiology refers to:

B) Pathogenesis C) Manifestations D) Interdisciplinary care

Correct Answer: B) Pathogenesis

Rationale: Pathogenesis describes the sequence of events from exposure to a disease-causing agent to the appearance of symptoms.

19. Which of the following is considered a "non-modifiable" risk factor for heart disease? A) Smoking B) Obesity C) Family history of heart disease D) Physical inactivity

Correct Answer: C) Family history of heart disease

Rationale: Non-modifiable risk factors are characteristics like genetics that cannot be changed or controlled.

20. Imaging studies such as X-rays and CT scans are used primarily for: A) Blood glucose monitoring B) Evaluating structural abnormalities C) Assessing kidney function

D) Monitoring cholesterol levels

Correct Answer: B) Evaluating structural abnormalities

Rationale: Imaging studies are instrumental in detecting structural abnormalities in organs and tissues.

21. Which of the following diagnostic tests is typically used to assess liver function? A) Electrocardiogram (ECG) B) Liver function panel C) Sputum culture D) Lumbar puncture

Correct Answer: B) Liver function panel

Rationale: A liver function panel is a series of blood tests that measure liver enzyme levels and other markers of liver health.

22. Delayed wound healing is an example of altered: A) Neurological health B) Psychological health C) Physical health D) Social health

Rationale: Etiology focuses on understanding the genetic and environmental causes of diseases.

25. Which diagnostic study is commonly used to evaluate bone density? A) Ultrasound B) Chest X-ray C) Colonoscopy D) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

Correct Answer: A) Ultrasound

Rationale: Bone density assessments are commonly performed using ultrasound to diagnose conditions like osteoporosis.

26. Mental health disorders such as anxiety and depression primarily affect which aspect of health? A) Physical health B) Psychological health C) Social health D) Environmental health

Correct Answer: B) Psychological health

Rationale: Mental health disorders like anxiety and depression primarily impact psychological well-being.

27. The term "prognosis" in pathophysiology refers to: A) Disease prevention strategies B) Predicted course and outcome of a disease C) Maintenance of optimal health D) Treatment of symptoms

Correct Answer: B) Predicted course and outcome of a disease

Rationale: The prognosis indicates the expected development and outcome of a disease based on various factors.

28. Which of the following diagnostic tests is commonly used in cancer screening? A) Complete blood count (CBC) B) Mammography C) Thyroid function panel D) ECG

Correct Answer: B) Mammography

Rationale: Mammography is a diagnostic tool used for breast cancer screening and early detection.

29. The field of pathophysiology is concerned with studying:

C. Maintenance of homeostasis D. Limited organ differentiation

Correct Answer: C. Maintenance of homeostasis

Rationale: Developmental physiology involves the study of how organisms maintain stability and balance in their internal environment despite external changes. This process is crucial for normal growth and function. What is the primary pathogenesis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus? A. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells B. Insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency C. Defect in insulin secretion D. Excessive insulin production

Correct Answer: B. Insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is primarily characterized by the body's reduced responsiveness to insulin and the inability to produce enough insulin to compensate for the resistance. Which of the following is a common manifestation of hypothyroidism? A. Heat intolerance B. Weight loss C. Bradycardia D. Exophthalmos

Correct Answer: C. Bradycardia

Rationale: Hypothyroidism often leads to a decreased heart rate (bradycardia) due to the reduced metabolic activity associated with an underactive thyroid gland. What is the etiology of Alzheimer's disease? A. Genetic mutations B. Traumatic brain injury C. Chronic stress D. Viral infection

Correct Answer: A. Genetic mutations

Rationale: While various factors may contribute to Alzheimer's disease, genetic mutations, especially in genes related to amyloid precursor protein processing, play a significant role in its etiology. Which diagnostic study is essential for confirming the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction? A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) B. Complete blood count (CBC) C. Urinalysis D. Chest X-ray

Correct Answer: A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Rationale: An ECG is a cornerstone diagnostic tool for identifying acute myocardial infarction by detecting characteristic changes in the heart's electrical activity.

A. Serum creatinine B. C-reactive protein (CRP) C. Serum albumin D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Correct Answer: A. Serum creatinine

Rationale: Serum creatinine levels are commonly measured to assess renal function, as elevated levels may indicate impaired kidney function, such as in acute kidney injury. A patient with suspected peptic ulcer disease undergoes an endoscopy, revealing mucosal erosion in the stomach lining. Which diagnostic test is essential for confirming the presence of Helicobacter pylori infection? A. Urea breath test B. Stool antigen test C. Serologic testing D. Gastric biopsy

Correct Answer: D. Gastric biopsy

Rationale: Gastric biopsy allows for direct visualization and detection of Helicobacter pylori bacteria in the stomach lining, providing a definitive diagnosis of infection. In the context of autoimmune disorders, which serologic marker is commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? A. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) B. Rheumatoid factor (RF)

C. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) D. Anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA)

Correct Answer: D. Anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA)

Rationale: Anti-dsDNA antibodies are specific to SLE and play a key role in the diagnosis and monitoring of disease activity in systemic lupus erythematosus. Which imaging study is preferred for evaluating suspected pulmonary embolism due to its high sensitivity and specificity? A. Chest X-ray B. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan C. Pulmonary angiography D. Computed Tomography Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)

Correct Answer: D. Computed Tomography Pulmonary Angiography

(CTPA)

Rationale: CTPA is the imaging modality of choice for diagnosing pulmonary embolism, offering high accuracy in detecting blood clots in the pulmonary vasculature. A patient with chronic liver disease presents with ascites. Which diagnostic study is essential for determining the underlying cause of ascites? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Ascitic fluid analysis C. Liver biopsy D. Serum amylase levels