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AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 Questions And Answers Verified, Exams of Nursing

AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 Questions And Answers Verified 1. AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 study guide with verified answers 2. How to pass AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 with verified questions 3. AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 practice questions and answers 4. Tips for acing AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 with verified content 5. AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 question bank with expert-verified answers 6. Comprehensive review for AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 with verified material 7. AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 preparation resources and verified answers 8. Common mistakes to avoid on AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 with verified guidance 9. AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 sample questions and verified solutions 10. Best strategies for tackling AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 with verified information 11. AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 study materials with verified answers included 12. How to improve your score on AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 using verified resources AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam

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1. There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that
describes secondary intention.
A. The wound is approximated with no wound separation.
B. The wound is cleaned, debriefed and packed.
C. The wound is vascularized.
D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and
herniation
Ans>> D.
Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation
and herniation
2. An example of a simple drain
is Ans>> Penrose drain
3. Which statement is an accurate description of negative pressure
wound therapy?
A. Applies constant, positive wound pressure.
B. Promotes wound contracture.
AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM
Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam)
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Download AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam 2 Questions And Answers Verified and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

1. There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that

describes secondary intention.

A. The wound is approximated with no wound separation.

B. The wound is cleaned, debriefed and packed.

C. The wound is vascularized.

D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and

herniation Ans>> D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation

2. An example of a simple drain

is Ans>> Penrose drain

3. Which statement is an accurate description of negative pressure

wound therapy?

A. Applies constant, positive wound pressure.

B. Promotes wound contracture.

AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM

Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam)

C. Increases bacterial loads.

D. Encourages edema.

Ans>> B. Promotes wound contracture.

4. Which description of an additional skin closure options is applicable to a

zipper closure?

A. Limited to use on superficial wounds.

B. Easier to remove than sutures.

C. Distributes skin-stretching forces over a side surface area.

D. A stand alone skin approximation method or used in conjunction with a

suture closure. Ans>> C. Distributes skin-stretching forces over a side surface area.

5. 1. Which option describes an interrupted suture?

A. A single stitch that is tied independently.

B. A suture that encircles the wound.

C. A heavy suture that reinforces the primary suture line.

D. A suture placed in an epidural layer.

Ans>> A. A single stitch that is tied independently.

6. 1. Which statement about a patient who requires airborne precautions is

TRUE?

B. Personnel working in restricted and semi-restricted areas should

apply lip balm to avoid cracked lips.

C. Personnel should wash their hands with soap after direct contact with

blood, bodily fluids or other potentially infectious materials.

D. Education on occupational exposure should be provided to

healthcare personnel ever 2 years. Ans>> C. Personnel should wash their hands with soap after direct contact with blood, bodily fluids or other potentially infectious materials.

8. Choose the option that describes the personal protective equipment

(PPE) necessary for healthcare personnel transporting a patient that requires con- tact precautions

A. PPE is required for all team members for each patient transport.

B. PPE is not required for patient transport.

C. PPE is required for all team members when patient transport is necessary.

D. PPE is required for designated team member when direct contact is

neces- sary. Ans>> B. PPE is not required for patient transport.

9. 1. Choose the term that describes the amount of the virus that is found

in the individual's blood.

A. Viral shedding.

B. Viral load.

C. Viral

replication. Viral transmission

Ans>> B. Viral load

10. 1. Which element of the chain of infection describes a microorganism after

exiting an infectious reservoir?

A. Mode of transmission.

B. Susceptible host.

C. Portal of entry.

D. Infectious agent.

Ans>> A. Mode of transmission

11. 1. Which gowning and gloving action would a scrub nurse preform?

A. Changing gloves every 90-150 minutes or after contact with bone cement.

B. Drying arms and hands by waving them in the air.

C. Gloving after team members only when the hand is exposed and the

sterile gown cuff is at the wrist.

D. Wearing double gloves that are extra loose to avoid numbness.

Ans>> A. Changing gloves every 90-150 minutes or after contact with bone cement.

12. 1. Which barrier level gown would you choose if you anticipated high

risk of exposure?

A. Level 1

B. Level 2

D. None of the above.

Ans>> A. The count process

16. Instruments are inspected at multiple points of use during the

sterilization process. Which step is the preventative measure?

A. Point of use lubrication of a requested instrument.

B. Scheduled inspection of instrument sets.

C. Use of a cracked insulated instrument on an emergency surgery.

D. Use of a misaligned instrument for grasping tough

tissue. Ans>> B. Scheduled inspection of instrument sets.

17. 1. Which option describes a critical patient safety step that the scrub

nurse takes prior to laparoscopic surgery?

A. Checks the surface of the insulated instruments for tears and cracks.

B. Identifies laparoscopic instruments by looking at the instrument tips.

C. Measure the width of laparoscopic instruments.

D. Determines the length of each trocar.

Ans>> A. Checks the surface of the insulated instruments for tears and cracks.

18. 1. Which of the following options concerning minimally invasive surgery

that is performed via a robot is NOT correct?

A. Robotic instruments are similar to laparoscopic instruments.

B. The robotic arms are part of the surgeon's consul.

C. The video cart contains equipment such as the camera monitor and light

source.

D. The operating surgeon has control of the robotic instrument, camera and

scope. Ans>> B. The robotic arms are part of the surgeon's consul.

19. 1. A consideration that would NOT be considered in instrument assembly is

A. A patient population.

B. Type of surgery.

C. Tray weights.

D. Scheduling conflicts.

Ans>> D. Scheduling conflicts.

20. 1. Which of the following sterile towels is considered a drape?

A. Disposable cloth towels.

B. Reusable cloth towels.

C. Skin prep towel.

D. Impervious towel.

Ans>> D. Impervious towel.

21. 1. Before a central venous catheter insertion, the provider should

A. Use an area specific plastic drape.

B. Don a long sleeved jacket.

D. Wipe the area with an alcohol

wipe. Ans>> C. Don sterile gown and gloves.

22. 1. Which statement about draping the sterile field is INCORRECT?

A. Scrubbed personnel remove and replace their gloves after draping.

B. There is an increased risk for contamination of the sterile personnel's

gown and gloves when dropping the sterile field.

C. The unscrubbed team member last apply the sterile drapes to create a

sterile field.

D. The draping process is carefully monitored by all team members.

Ans>> C. The unscrubbed team member last apply the sterile drapes to create a sterile field.

23. 1. The purpose of the surgical drape is to

A. Reduce the risk of hospital acquired infections.

B. Cover furniture for use by non-sterile personnel.

C. Allow the passage microbes between unsterile and sterile areas.

D. Provide a two sided sterile barrier.

Ans>> A. Reduce the risk of hospital acquired infections.

24. 1. Which of the following is a traffic rule that the scrub person

should observe?

A. Turn their back to the sterile field to get an instrument.

B. Maintain a distance from the sterile field.

C. Cross arms and put their hands in their axilla to keep sterile.

D. Change position with another scrub person either face-to-

face or back-to-back. Ans>> D. Change position with another scrub person either face-to-face or back-to-back.

25. 1. A principle of covering or uncovering a sterile field includes

A. Covering multiple sterile fields to allow for quick turnovers.

B. Covering a portion of the sterile field until needed.

C. Covering a sterile field with one uncuffed drape.

D. Remove a cover by lifting drape from below the sterile

field. Ans>> B. Covering a portion of the sterile field until needed.

26. 1. A factor that would negatively affect the sterility of an instrument is

A. Regulated humidity and temperature.

B. Use of approved packaging materials.

C. Exposed to moisture.

D. Transported out of the surgical suite with a protective

cover. Ans>> C. Exposed to moisture.

27. 1. When opening a blue wrapped item, the nurse should

A. Inspect the wrap integrity for holes and tears.

B. Open the top flap toward their body.

C. Allow side flaps to hang loose.

D. Open the last flap toward the scrub

person. Ans>> A. Inspect the wrap integrity for holes and tears.

A. The neck to below the natural waist.

B. The chest to the level of the sterile field.

C. The shoulder to the proximal edge of the cuff.

D. 2 inches above the elbow to the distal edge of the

cuff. Ans>> B. The chest to the level of the sterile field.

29. 1. Instrument sets MUST not weigh more

than Ans>> 25lbs

30. 1. Choose the option that does NOT accurately depict concepts of imme-

diate use steam sterilization (IUSS).

A. An instrument for IUSS should be cleaned in the scrub sink.

B. A rigid enclosed container is used for IUSS cycle.

C. A biological indicator is run with an implant load.

D. Items are not stored for future procedures.

Ans>> A. An instrument for IUSS should be cleaned in the scrub sink.

31. 1. Which is an accurate statement regarding shelf-life?

A. A shelf-life is event related.

B. Shelf-life is time related.

C. Shelf-life is not affected by handling.

D. Shelf-life is not affected by storage

temperature. Ans>> A. A shelf-life is event related.

32. 1. Which statement related to biological indicators (BI) testing is true?

A. An unprocessed BI vial should produce a positive test after incubation.

B. Both BI vials are placed in the sterilizer together.

C. A sterilizer quality test is performed at least every six months.

D. Any BI type can be used for any sterilization method.

Ans>> A. An unprocessed BI vial should produce a positive test after incubation.

33. 1. Why is water temperature an important consideration when

cleaning instruments?

A. Cool water makes it harder to removed soil from the instrument cervices.

B. Cool water prevents blood coagulation.

C. Hot water makes blood easier to remove.

D. Hot water is the preferred temperature for

manufactures. Ans>> B. Cool water prevents blood coagulation.

34. 1. Personnel establishing the chain of custody for forensic evidence must

do all EXCEPT the following?

A. Adhere to regulatory requirements for evidence admission into a court of law.

B. Detail who collected the specimen and how it was handled.

C. Have accompanying documentation when the evidence is released to a law

officer.

D. Store evidence in a personal locker until it can be handed over to the law

35. 1. Retrieval of bullets and other metal objects for forensic study requires

A. Rinsing, washing and wiping the item clean of blood and other bodily fluids.

B. Retrieving the item with a metal instrument.

C. An open procedure rather than endoscopic procedure.

D. Metal instrument tip protective

devices. Ans>> D. Metal instrument tip protective devices.

36. 1. What action should be taken when transferring a specimen off the sterile

field?

A. Wait until the end of the case to transfer the specimen into a container.

B. Deposit the specimen into the smallest container that can be closed.

C. Confirm the type of test that is be requested with the surgeon.

D. Immerse the specimen into preservative until further instruction.

Ans>> C. Confirm the type of test that is be requested with the surgeon.

37. 1. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action for specimen han-

dling on the sterile field?

A. Cover the specimen or place in a sterile specimen container.

B. Label the covered or contained specimen.

C. Ensure that the specimen stays dry until the transfer off the sterile field.

D. Handle the specimen as little as possible.

Ans>> C. Ensure that the specimen stays dry until the transfer off the sterile field.

38. 1. The specimen transport container should

A. Display the patient's information for ease of specimen hand-over.

B. Have a biohazard label for fresh or frozen specimens only.

C. Be stored in the operating room until the specimen can be transported

to the pathology department.

D. Protect the integrity of the specimen.

Ans>> D. Protect the integrity of the specimen.

39. 1. Specimen management errors can result in

A. A lower incident of morbidity.

B. Potential litigation.

C. Increase in community trust.

D. Faster diagnostic

results. Ans>> B. Potential litigation.

A. Appropriate wave length eyewear is placed at the room's entrance.

B. The laser is kept in the active mode throughout the procedure.

C. Windows are covered prior to use.

D. The laser is tested before use.

Ans>> B. The laser is kept in the active mode through- out the procedure.

41. 1. A monopolar electrosurgical intervention for the patient with an

implant- ed electrical device (IED) is

A. Placement of the dispersive pad as close to the IED as possible.

B. Use of the ESU at the highest power setting for faster application.

C. Verification of the IED and its leads are between the ESU pencil

and the dispersive pad.

D. Inactivation of the IEU, when

possible. Ans>> D. Inactivation of the IEU, when possible.

42. 1. Disposable dispersive pads are

A. Multi-use.

B. Stamped with an expiration date.

C. Opened and adhered to the electro surgical unit cart handle during set-up.

D. Cut to size for pediatric patients.

Ans>> B. Stamped with an expiration date.

43. 1. Which option is NOT a radiation exposure safety measure?

A. Time

B. Distance

C. Shielding

D. Exposure

Ans>> D. Exposure

44. 1. Failure to follow instructions for use of a healthcare product or device

A. Adheres to equipment warranty.

B. Prevents patient injury.

C. May result in the hospital's accrediting body issuing citations.

D. Ensures correct device storage.

Ans>> C. May result in the hospital's accrediting body issuing citations.

45. 1. What is a consideration of the abdominal perineal skin antisepsis?

A. The bladder is drained before the vaginal prep.

B. Three or more prep kits are needed.

C. Positioning devices should be ready for use prior to positioning.

D. The three areas that are prepped are the abdomen, vagina and

thighs. Ans>> C. Positioning devices should be ready for use prior to positioning.

46. 1. An important step in the preoperative skin antisepsis is the

documenta- tion. Which element is recorded after surgery?

A. Pre-existing skin conditions.

B. Area prepped.

C. Skin antiseptic used.