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1. what is an appropriate action for a nurse assisting anesthesia?
Ans>> Apply cricoid pressure if needed during intubation
2. What is not considered a basic monitor for
anesthesia? Ans>> Arterial line
3. What drug is used to reverse valium and midazolam
(Versed)? Ans>> Flumazenil
4. How can the perioperative nurse assist eh provider with placement of a
spinal or epidural block? Ans>> Calm the patient
AORN PERIOP 101 EXAM
Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam)
5. During intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier Block), the tourniquet should be
deflated slowly to prevent which of the following from the entering circula- tion? Ans>> Bolus of anesthetic
6. What is the most consistent indicator of malignant hyperthermia during a
surgical intervention? Ans>> unexplained increase in end title CO
7. Which assessment factor is important to include when screening
patients for potential risk of malignant hyperthermia? Ans>> Family history of problems with anesthesia
8. What are complications associated with laparoscopic
surgery? Ans>> CO2 em- bolism, Umbilical hernia
9. Which options can the scrub person take to help prevent accidental
ther- mal burns? Ans>> inspect laparoscopic instrumentation for excessive wear replace instruments that have damaged insulation clean all instruments with sterile water
14. Damp dusting of the OR as part of the preliminary room preparation
should be done Ans>> in the morning before bringing in surgical supplies
15. Which methods are most effective for terminal cleaning the floors in
the OR? Ans>> damp mop with two mop system
16. Which of the following is correct regarding the disposal of contents from
reusable suction systems? Ans>> Done by federal state and local regulations
17. What is true regarding spray bottles?
Ans>> spray bottles can aerosolize potentially infectious materials spray bottles are occasionally used to apply disinfectant
18. The proper device for the disposal of blades, needles and stapling devices
should be Ans>> sharps disposal container
19. The goals of preforming post-procedure cleaning of the OR include
Ans>> it renders the environment safe for the patient following in that room to prevent cross contamination it is the patients right to a clean and safe environment it breaks the cycle of contamination from the patient to the environment to the OR personnel and subsequent patients
20. Terminal cleaning must be done
Ans>> Once during each 24 hour period
21. During post procedure cleaning what must be done
Ans>> all kick buckets, ham- pers, and similar receptacles must be emptied and disinfected as needed OR bed should be moved to clean floor transport vehicles are considered dirty after patient contact all horizontal surfaces of tables, and equipment should be wiped down with a lint-free cloth moistened with a hospital approved disinfectant
22. Sponge counts are not done
for Ans>> state law requirements
23. What should the periop nurse ensure when positioning a patient?
Ans>> use additional precautions as appropriate based on unique patient considerations
24. what physiological effects are most likely to result from positioning a
patient in lithotomy? Ans>> Circulatory and respiratory compromise due to compression on the abdomen
25. What are safety measures to take into consideration when placing the
patient in a lateral position?
Lower arm on same plane as OR mattress; forearm and wrist in neutral positions; palm up The patients dependent ear should be assessed to ensure that it is not folded
26. Documentation should include but is not
limited to Ans>> type of positioning devices used names of persons positioning the patient
27. what are factors that should be considered in the periop
assessment Ans>> age nutritional status pre-existing conditions
28. The use of PNDS helps a nurse
to Ans>> Ans>> Plan the nursing interventions assess and develop nursing diagnosis' assess and evaluate the patients status Evaluate responses to positioning
29. A table flexed 90 degress for the position is a variation of the
position Ans>> jack-knife (kraske), prone
30. What response is the result of tissue layers moving on
each other Ans>> Shearing
31. What surgical positions adversely affect diaphragmatic
movement? Ans>> Tren- delenberg, prone and lateral
32. The purpose of National patient safety goals
is to Ans>> Promote specific improve- ments in safety highlight problematic areas in healthcare describe evidence and expert-based system wide solutions to the problems
33. What is a practice that implements Joint commissions universal
protocol for preventing, wrong site, wrong person, wrong procedure Ans>> using a timeout procedure before beginning case
38. Professional organizations and societies as well as individual
organiza- tions can proactively create a culture that supports patient safety through Ans>> - Convene and communicate with members about safety Incorporate attention to patient safety into training programs collaborate across disciplines
39. when a count discrepancy occurs, what should be the FIRST action by
the RN circulator? Ans>> inform the surgical team of the discrepancy
40. sponge and instrument counts are performed according to facility policy
and procedure. Generally, the times during sx procedure that sponges are counted are Ans>> Ans>> at skin closure before procedure begins when new items are added to the field when wound closure begins
41. Which of the following actions should be included in the perioperative
nursing care of a patient with a suspected latex allergy? Ans>> assess the patients cross-sensitivities and previous latex reactions indicate latex precautions on door signs for every room that patient occupies use latex- free supplies for IV's, hair coverings and dressing materials Verify that surgeon is aware of allergy
42. when using chemical products the perioperative nurse should
Ans>> use skin prep solutions according to manufacturers recommendations ensure the prep solution does not pool on drapes apply blotting towels before performing a skin prep allow skin
prep to dry before draping
43. which of the following factors increase the patients risk for skin
injury? Ans>> - unusual positions or positioning devices use of electrical equipment use of chemical agents prolonged length of surgery
44. AORN guidelines for the time out recommend that all team
members verbally verify the agreement on Ans>> Ans>> the name of the patient the site of the procedure including side distinction the procedure to be preformed
45. Mechanical issues and problems that can cause skin injury
include Ans>> placing heavy items on the patient dragging the patients body across the sheets Improperly applying sequential compression stockings
Ans>> Nonessential personnel should leave the room pregnant health care workers should avoid or limit exposure lead protective aprons, gloves and thyroid covers should be worn
53. Nursing documentation for pneumatic tourniquet use
includes Ans>> identifica- tion/serial number and model of the specific tourniquet location of the cuff skin and tissue integrity time of inflation and deflation of cuff
54. Safety measures to prevent complications or injury due to the
use of pneumatic tourniquet includes Ans>> keep fluids form pooling under cuff only minimal effective pressure should be used to create a bloodless field there should be a complete preoperative assessment the cuff should fit properly on the patient the inflation time should be monitored
55. which of the following is a correct application of the AORN
guidelines for proper eyewear during laser use Ans>> the eyewear should match the type of laser, optical density and wavelength
56. Volatile liquid
Ans>> a liquid that evaporates quickly
57. combustible skin agent
Ans>> a skin antiseptic agent that will burn with a flash point of grater than 100 degrees, 38.7 C
58. Flammable skin agent
Ans>> a skin antiseptic agent that has a flash point of less than 100 degrees, 38.7 C
59. Combustible rating
Ans>> an established rating used with skin antiseptic solutions that can be found by reviewing MSDS sheets
60. The nominal hazard zone for laser use is the
Ans>> space where direct scattered or reflected laser radiation exceeds maximal permissible exposure
61. risks to patients and staff members associated with laser use
include Ans>> eye injury fire hazards inhalation of laser plume
62. potential sources of fuel for surgical fires
include Ans>> draping materials
63. the concept of standard care related to documentation includes
Ans>> the nurse required to document and act as a reasonably qualified nurse would in a similar situation
70. accurate perioperative documentation includes
Ans>> patient identification perioperative orders patient assessment
71. when documenting a surgical drain what should be
included Ans>> where the drain was placed on the patient
72. Components of the electrical surgical unit
include Ans>> Active electrode, disper- sive electrode and generator
73. to reduce the possibility of injury related to burn where should the
nurse place the dispersive electrode Ans>> as close to the operative site as feasible
74. which statement best describes the path for bipolar surgical current?
Ans>> cur- rent leaves the generator, is applied to tissue using two poled instrument and returns to the generator
75. if the surgeon continuously asks for higher power settings what is the
first action the perioperative RN should take Ans>> check the circuitry for possible disruption
76. Alternate pathway burns can occur because of improper placement, where
should the dispersive electrode not be places Ans>> hairy skin surfaces burn tissue bony prominences
77. When using argon-enhanced coagulation AEC there is a risk
of Ans>> gas emboli
78. what are considered exhaust ventilation LEV devices
83. what is true regarding AORN's guidelines for perioperative
practice Ans>> they are based on what nurses do in ideal situations they may be fulfilled in varying degrees in different situations
84. why is it important for perioperative nurses to have a basic
understanding of business principles? Ans>> to enable them to plan safe and effective care that is also cost effective to facilitate competition for patient volume to manage and allocate resources wisely
85. gross revenue
Ans>> all monies received by the facility for goods and services
86. fixed expenses
Ans>> medical records and administration
87. net revenue
Ans>> gross revenue minus expenses
88. variable cost
Ans>> costs directly related to patient volume
