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How many calories are in one gram of protein? a. 2 b. 4 c. 9 d. 7 - ✔✔ 4 Adduction is a movement back toward the midline of the body in which of the following planes? a. Median plane b. Frontal plane c. Transverse plane d. Sagittal plane - ✔✔Frontal plane What is neuromuscular efficiency? a. The cumulative input to the peripheral nervous system from internal organs b. Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion c. A muscle's ability to contract for an extended period of time d. Ability of the body's stabilizing muscles to provide force for movement - ✔✔Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion What term refers to a bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases?
Select one: a. Eversion b. Flexion c. Evulsion d. Abduction - ✔✔Flexion Which of the following represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood? a. Medial b. Systolic c. Distal d. Diastolic - ✔✔Diastolic In which plane of motion does a hammer curl occur? a. Anterior-posterior b. Frontal c. Sagittal d. Transverse - ✔✔Sagittal Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction? a. Radial pulse b. Stroke volume c. Heart rate d. Cardiac output - ✔✔Stroke volume How does metabolism behave during EPOC?
For which of the following is building and repairing body tissues and structures a primary function? a. Carbohydrate b. Lipid c. Vitamin d. Protein - ✔✔Protein Which of the following is an example of a sagittal plane movement? a. Internal rotation of limbs b. Triceps pushdown c. Side lunges d. Horizontal adduction of limbs - ✔✔Triceps pushdown What term describes the act of synergists taking over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover? a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction d. Autogenic inhibition - ✔✔Synergistic dominance A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein? a. 40% b. 60% c. 30% d. 50% - ✔✔30%
Which term refers to fibrous connective tissues that connect bone to bone and provide static and dynamic stability as well as input to the nervous system? a. Ligaments b. Tendons c. Effectors d. Dendrites - ✔✔Ligaments The gastrocnemius is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following? a. Knee adduction b. Knee abduction c. Ankle dorsiflexion d. Ankle plantarflexion - ✔✔Ankle plantarflexion A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting? a. Motor learning b. Synergistic dominance c. Relative flexibility d. Autogenic inhibition - ✔✔Motor learning How many calories does one gram of carbohydrate yield? a. 3 b. 6 c. 2 d. 4 - ✔✔ 4
d. Shark skill test - ✔✔Davies test Which of the following assessments can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press? a. Single-leg squat assessment b. Upper extremity strength assessment c. Lower extremity strength assessment d. Overhead squat assessment - ✔✔Upper extremity strength assessment Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate to evaluate any shoulder complex compensations? a. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view b. Overheard squat assessment, anterior view c. Shark skill test, anterior view d. Pushing assessment, lateral view - ✔✔Pushing assessment, lateral view The observation of excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment is most likely caused by which of the following? a. An overactive abductor complex and anterior tibialis b. An overactive pectoralis major and teres major c. An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius d. An overactive transverse abdominis and gluteus maximus - ✔✔An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive?
a. Levator scapulae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Mid and lower trapezius d. Upper trapezius - ✔✔Mid and lower trapeziu Which of the following is the appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client? a. Divide the client's resting heart rate by 220. b. Subtract the client's age from 220 c. Add the client's resting heart rate from 220. d. Divide 220 by the client's age. - ✔✔Subtract the client's age from 220. Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following? a. The top number in the blood pressure reading b. The larger of the two numbers c. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood - ✔✔Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following? a. Coronary heart disease b. Peripheral edema condition c. Restrictive lung disease d. Metabolic syndrome - ✔✔Metabolic syndrome Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension?
a. Popliteus, gracilis, and patellar tendon b. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and posterior tibial tendon c. Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneal brevis tendon d. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon - ✔✔Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control? a. Davies test b. Single-leg squat c. Shark skill test d. Single-leg star test - ✔✔Shark skill test When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius? a. External rotation of the feet b. Low back arches c. Knees move inward d. Arms fall forward - ✔✔External rotation of the feet When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive? a. Supraspinatus b. Teres minor c. Teres major d. Rhomboids - ✔✔Teres major What measurement needs to be taken prior to the start of the Rockport walk test?
a. Weight b. Heart rate c. Height d. Body fat - ✔✔Weight Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees? a. Pronation distortion syndrome b. Upper crossed syndrome c. Lower extremity movement syndrome d. Lower crossed syndrome - ✔✔Pronation distortion syndrome Which of the following is a questionnaire designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client? a. McGill Pain Questionnaire b. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) c. Remote Associates Test (RAT) d. Inhibitory Control Test - ✔✔Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) What is the term for the client's pulse found on their wrist? a. Carotid pulse b. Radial pulse c. Popliteal pulse d. Brachial pulse - ✔✔Radial pulse
A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occurring to the woman's aerobic energy system? a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Mechanical specificity c. Autogenic inhibition d. Metabolic specificity - ✔✔Metabolic specificity In which phase of the OPT model is it appropriate to superset a leg press with a single-leg squat? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 2 - ✔✔Phase 2 Which of the following is a resistance training method that involves performing a set with light load followed by increasing the load and decreasing the repetitions with each continuing set? a. Circuit training b. Pyramid system c. Vertical loading d. Split-routine - ✔✔Pyramid system Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during running movements? a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground. b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air.
c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air. - ✔✔The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground. During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual? a. Two-leg floor bridge b. Back extension c. Reverse crunch d. Ball medicine pullover throw - ✔✔Two-leg floor bridge When training a client with arthritis who has never worked out before, it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise? a. 20 b. 15 c. 5 d. 10 - ✔✔ 5 Power training is done in which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 2 - ✔✔Phase 5 The main goal of balance training is to continually increase a client's awareness of his or her limit of stability awareness by creating which of the following?
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent? a. Pyramid b. Peripheral heart action c. Vertical loading d. Drop-set - ✔✔Vertical loading For which of the following are Stage I cardiorespiratory training programs designed? a. To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients b. For clients with low-to-moderate cardiorespiratory fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensity levels c. For advanced clients who have a moderately high cardiorespiratory fitness level base d. To help clients improve anaerobic power and sprinting capabilities - ✔✔To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients How many weeks should a client spend during the Stabilization Phase of core training? a. 4 b. 9 c. 8 d. 10 - ✔✔ 4 Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis? a. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling. b. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
c. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups. d. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities. - ✔✔Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model. Which of the following governs how the body responds and adjusts to stress? a. Autogenic inhibition b. Synergistic response c. General adaptation syndrome d. Homeostasis - ✔✔General adaptation syndrome Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for a client in the hypertrophy phase of the OPT model? a. Single-leg balance reach b. Barbell squat c. Seated stability ball military press d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift - ✔✔Barbell squat Which of the following refers to a program design approach that uses various phases of the OPT model throughout the week? a. Tabulation Incorrect b. Undulating periodization c. Linear periodization d. Linear summation - ✔✔ Which of the following are core-stabilization exercises designed to improve?
Select one: a. Slowly squat as if sitting in a chair, reaching hand opposite of balance leg toward foot. b. Push through both heels and stand upright, balancing on one leg. c. Bend from the waist and slowly reach hand down toward the toes of the balance leg. d. Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.
- ✔✔Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation. What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise? Select one: a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press b. Kettlebell hang clean and jerk c. Barbell clean d. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press - ✔✔Squat, curl, to two-arm press Which of the following is a leg-stabilization exercise whose preparatory step involves standing in front of a box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead? Select one: a. Single-leg lift and chop b. Lunge to balance c. Step-up to balance d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift - ✔✔Step-up to balance When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground? a. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed b. Internally rotated and plantar flexed c. Pointing straight ahead and plantar flexed d. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed - ✔✔Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises? a. Biceps curl b. Standing cable row c. Standing triceps extension d. Dumbbell chest press - ✔✔Standing cable row Ice skaters are an example of which type of exercise? a. Balance-power b. Balance-strength c. Plyometric-power d. Reactive-strength - ✔✔Plyometric-power Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client? a. Muscle hypertrophy b. Strength c. Postural control d. Speed - ✔✔Postural control What is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds? a. Dynamic stretching b. Active-isolated stretching c. Static stretching
