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Anatomy and Physiology 1 final exam multiple choice Practice A & P 2024 Placement Exam I (, Study Guides, Projects, Research of Anatomy

Anatomy and Physiology 1 final exam multiple choice Practice A & P 2024 Placement Exam I (answers on last page) 1. Which of the following is the correct order of complexity, going from least to most complex? a. Atom, molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ b. Organ, tissue, cell, organelle, atom, molecule c. Organ, tissue, cell, organelle, molecule, atom d. Molecule, atom, organ, tissue, cell, organelle e. Atom, molecule, organelle, cell, organ, tissue 2. Organelles are a. Cells b. Organisms c. A group of cells that serve a common function d. Compartments within cells e. Proteins

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Anatomy and Physiology 1 final
exam multiple choice Practice A & P
2024 Placement Exam I (answers
on last page)
1. Which of the following is the correct order of complexity, going from least to most complex?
a. Atom, molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ
b. Organ, tissue, cell, organelle, atom, molecule
c. Organ, tissue, cell, organelle, molecule, atom
d. Molecule, atom, organ, tissue, cell, organelle
e. Atom, molecule, organelle, cell, organ, tissue
2. Organelles are
a. Cells
b. Organisms
c. A group of cells that serve a common function
d. Compartments within cells
e. Proteins
3. Tissues are
a. A group of cells that serve a common function
b. Compartments within cells
c. Proteins
d. Organisms
e. Cells
4. Tissues are grouped together in functional units called
a. Organelles
b. Cells
c. Organisms
d. Organs
5. The subatomic particles that play the greatest role in cellular chemical reactions are
a. Protons
b. Neutrons
c. Electrons
d. Isotopes
6. The mass within in an atom comes from
a. Protons only
b. Protons and neutrons
c. Electrons only
d. Protons, neutrons, and electrons
e.
7. An atom whose atomic number is 10 has how many electrons in its outermost energy level?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 2
d. 3
e. 5
8. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their
a. Number of electrons
b. Number of neutrons
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Anatomy and Physiology 1 final

exam multiple choice Practice A & P

2024 Placement Exam I (answers

on last page)

  1. Which of the following is the correct order of complexity, going from least to most complex? a. Atom, molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ b. Organ, tissue, cell, organelle, atom, molecule c. Organ, tissue, cell, organelle, molecule, atom d. Molecule, atom, organ, tissue, cell, organelle e. Atom, molecule, organelle, cell, organ, tissue
  2. Organelles are a. Cells b. Organisms c. A group of cells that serve a common function d. Compartments within cells e. Proteins
  3. Tissues are a. A group of cells that serve a common function b. Compartments within cells c. Proteins d. Organisms e. Cells
  4. Tissues are grouped together in functional units called a. Organelles b. Cells c. Organisms d. Organs
  5. The subatomic particles that play the greatest role in cellular chemical reactions are a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Isotopes
  6. The mass within in an atom comes from a. Protons only b. Protons and neutrons c. Electrons only d. Protons, neutrons, and electrons e.
  7. An atom whose atomic number is 10 has how many electrons in its outermost energy level? a. 8 b. 10 c. 2 d. 3 e. 5
  8. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their a. Number of electrons b. Number of neutrons

c. Number of protons d. Ionic charge

  1. Which of the following is not a compound? a. A protein b. Glucose c. Methane d. Sodium e. Table salt
  2. Atoms form bonds to a. Fill their outer shells with neutrons b. Obtain an equal number of protons and electrons c. Fill their outer shells with electrons d. Fill their outer shells with protons e. Obtain an equal number of protons and neutrons
  3. Water is a polar molecule because a. Oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen b. Hydrogen has more neutrons than oxygen c. Oxygen has more electrons than hydrogen d. Oxygen has more neutrons than hydrogen e. Hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen
  4. H 2 S is an example of a a. Structural formula b. Ball-and-stick formula c. Molecular formula d. Space-filling model e. None of the above
  5. Potassium has one electron in its fourth shell, and chloride has seven electrons in its third shell. Which of the following is most likely to be true? a. Chloride will give an electron to potassium to form an ionic bond b. Potassium will give an electron to chloride to form an ionic bond c. The two atoms will share the electron unequally in a polar bond d. The two atoms will share an electron equally in a covalent nonpolar bond
  6. Nitrogen has seven protons, and hydrogen has one proton. Based on your knowledge of the rules of covalent bonding and using the periodic table to determine the number of electrons in each, which of the following molecules will form from the reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen? a. NH 5 b. NH 3 c. NH d. NH 2 e. NH 4
  7. You mix sugar in water and stir until it’s completely dissolved. In this system, the water is the ________, the sugar is the________ and the end result is a _________. a. Solute; solution; solvent b. Solute; solvent; solution c. Solvent; solution; solute d. Solution; solvent; solute e. Solvent; solute; solution

24.Each element has a unique_________, which refers to the number of protons present in its atoms. a. Isotope b. Mass number c. Atomic number d. Radioisotope 25.A molecule is ________. a. A bonding together of two or more atoms b. Less stable that is constituent atoms separated c. Electrically charged d. A carrier of one or more extra neutrons 26.If lithium has an atomic number of 3, and an atomic mass of 7, it has________ neutron(s) in its nucleus. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 7 27.Substances that are nonpolar and repelled by water are ________. a. Hydrolyzed b. Nonpolar c. Hydrophilic d. Hydrophobic 28.A hydrogen bond is _________. a. A sharing of a pair of electrons between a hydrogen nucleus and an oxygen nucleus b. A sharing of a pair of electrons between a hydrogen nucleus and either and oxygen or nitrogen nucleus c. Formed when an electronegative atom of a molecule weakly interacts with a hydrogen atom that is already participating in a polar covalent bond d. None of the above 29.An ionic bond is one in which ________. a. Electrons are shared equally b. Electrically neutral atoms have a mutual attraction c. Two charged atoms have a mutual attraction due to electron transfer or donation d. Electrons are shared unequally 30.A covalent is one in which a. Electrons are shared b. Electrically neutral atoms have a mutual attraction c. Two charged atoms have a mutual attraction due to electron transfer d. Electrons are lost 31.Lipids______. a. Include fats that are broken down into one fatty acid molecule and three glycerol molecules b. Are composed of monosaccharides c. Include triglycerides that serve as energy sources d. Include cartilage and chitin

40.The nucleolus is the site where a. The protein and RNA subunits of ribosomes are assembled b. The chromatin is formed c. Chromosomes are bound to the inside of the nuclear envelope d. Chromosomes duplicate themselves 41.The _________ is free of ribosomes and curves through the cytoplasm like connecting pipes; the main site of lipid synthesis. a. Lysosome b. Golgi body c. Smooth ER d. Rough ER 42.Mitochondria convert energy stored in __________ to forms that the cell can use, principally ATP. a. Water b. Carbon compounds c. NADPH 2 d. Carbon dioxide

  1. _______ are sacs of enzymes. They digest or break down worn out organelles so that the material can be recycled and reused by the cell. a. Lysosomes b. Glyoxysomes c. Golgi bodies d. Peroxisomes 44.Two classes of cytoskeletal elements underlie nearly all movements of eukaryotic cells; they are __________ a. Desmins and vimentins b. Actin and microfilaments c. Microtubules and microfilaments d. Microtubules and myosin 45.White blood cells use__________ to devour disease agents invading your body. a. Diffusion b. Bulk flow c. Osmosis d. Phagocytosis 46.In a lipid bilayer, tails point inward and form a(n) ___________ region that excludes water. a. Acidic b. Basic c. Hydrophilic d. Hydrophobic
  2. A protistan adapted to life in a freshwater pond is collected in a bottle and transferred to a saltwater bay. Which of the following is likely to happen? a. The cell bursts b. Salts flow out of the protistan cell c. The cell shrinks d. Enzymes flow out of the protistan

48. Which of the following is not a form of active transport? a. Sodium-potassium pump b. Endocytosis c. Exocytosis d. Bulk flow 49.Which of the following is not a form of passive transport? a. Osmosis b. Passive transport c. Bulk flow d. Exocytosis 50.O 2 , CO 2 , H 2 O, and other small, electrically neutral molecules move across the cell membrane by________. a. Electric gradients b. Receptor-mediated endocytosis c. Passive transport d. Active transport

  1. Ions such as H+, Na+, K+, and Ca++^ move across cell membranes against its concentration gradient by_________. a. Receptor mediated endocytosis b. Pressure gradients c. Passive transport d. Active transport
  2. An important principle of the second law of thermodynamics states that ________. a. energy can be transformed into matter, and because of this, we can get something for nothing b. energy can only be destroyed during nuclear reactions, such as those that occur inside the sun c. if energy is gained by one region of the universe, another place in the universe also must gain energy in order to maintain the balance of nature d. matter tends to become increasingly more disorganized
  3. Essentially, the first law of thermodynamics states that __________. a. one form of energy cannot be converted into another b. entropy is increasing in the universe c. energy cannot be created or destroyed d. energy cannot be converted into matter or matter into energy
  4. An enzyme is best described as _________. a. an acid b. protein c. a catalyst d. a fat e. both b and c
  5. Which is not true of enzyme behavior? a. Enzyme shape may change during catalysis b. The active site of an enzyme orients its substrate molecules, thereby promoting interaction of the reactive parts c. All enzymes have an active site where substrates are temporarily bound

d. An individual enzyme can catalyze a wide variety of different reactions

  1. What is the name of the process by which reduced NADH transfers electrons along a chain of acceptors to oxygen so as to form water and in which the energy released along the way is used to generate ATP? a. glycolysis b. acetyl-CoA formation c. the Krebs cycle d. the electron transport chain
  2. Pyruvic acid can be regarded as the end product of __________. a. glycolysis b. acetyl-CoA formation c. fermentation d. the Krebs cycle
  3. ATP production by chemiosmosis involves __________. a. H+^ concentration and electric gradients across a membrane b. ATP synthesis c. formation of ATP in the inner mitochondrial compartment d. all of the above
  4. During the fermentation pathways, a net yield of two ATP is produced from __________; the NAD+^ necessary for _________ is regenerated during the fermentation reactions. a. the Krebs cycle; glycolysis b. glycolysis; electron transport phosphorylation c. the Krebs cycle, electron transport phosphorylation d. glycolysis; glycolysis
  5. The replication of DNA occurs _________. a. between the growth phases of interphase b. immediately before prophase of mitosis c. during prophase of mitosis d. during prophase of meiosis
  6. Diploid refers to ________. a. having two chromosomes of each type in somatic cells b. twice the parental chromosome number c. half the parental chromosome number d. having one chromosome of each type in somatic cells
  7. Somatic cells are __________ cells; germ cells are _________ cells. a. meiotic; body b. body; body c. meiotic; meiotic d. body; meiotic
  8. If a parent cell has sixteen chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, the resulting cells will have__________ chromosomes. a. sixty-four b. thirty-two c. sixteen d. eight e. four
  1. The correct order of the stages of mitosis is __________. a. prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase b. telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase c. telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase d. anaphase, prophase, telophase, metaphase e. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
  2. “The nuclear envelope breaks completely into numerous tine, flattened vesicles. Now the chromosomes are free to interact with microtubules that are extending toward them, from the poles of the forming spindle.” These sentences describe the __________ of mitosis. a. prophase b. metaphase c. prometaphase d. anaphase e. telophase
  3. During ______, sisters chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other, and those former partners, now chromosomes move to opposite poles. a. prophase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophase
  4. In the process of cytokinesis, cleavage furrows are associated with _________ cell division, and cell plate formation is associated with ________ cell division. a. animal; animal b. plant; animal c. plant; plant d. animal; plant
  5. Each DNA strand has a backbone that consists of alternating ________. a. purines and pyrimidines b. nitrogen- containing bases c. hydrogen bonds d. sugar and phosphate molecules
  6. In DNA, complementary base-pairing occurs between ________. a. cytocine and uracil b. adenine and guanine c. adenine and uracil d. adenine and thymine
  7. Adenine and guanine are _________. a. double-ringed purines b. single-ringed purines c. double-ringed pyrimidines d. single-ringed pyrimidines