Download Ambulatory Care Nursing Certification Questions With Correct Answers 2023 Update (A+) and more Exams Pediatrics in PDF only on Docsity!
Ambulatory Care Nursing Certification
Questions With Correct Answers
2023 Update (A+)
How many medications does it typically take to be considered "polypharmacy?" A - Three B - Ten C - Twenty-four D - Five or more - Correct Answer-D - Five or more The ANP knows that it is her responsibility to report certain things to the proper authorities. Which of the following is NOT required to be reported? A - gunshot wound B - suspected child abuse C - drug abuse D - stab wounds - Correct Answer-C - drug abuse Drug abuse is not required by law to be reported. Gunshot wounds, stab wounds, and child abuse (actual or suspected) are required to be reported to the proper authorities. Prior to undergoing an abdominal sonogram, the patient should do what? A - refrain from food and water for 12 hours B - empty his or her bladder C - drink a liter of water D - empty his or her bowels - Correct Answer-C - drink a liter of water Prior to an abdominal sonogram, the patient is asked to drink water. In addition fasting for 8 to 12 hours prior to the procedure is often required. Which of the following is NOT part of a nursing diagnosis? A - statement of the patient's actual health status B - signs of illness C - medical diagnosis (such as stroke or pulmonary blockage) D - symptoms of illness - Correct Answer-C - medical diagnosis Nursing diagnoses should never contain medical diagnoses. Rather, the nursing diagnosis is a statement of the patient's actual health status, risks for condition developing, causative and related factors, and signs and symptoms. Primary care would be considered the cornerstone of ambulatory care with nurses practicing in which of the following areas of healthcare? A - Telehealth services B - Internal medicine C - Pediatrics D - All of the above - Correct Answer-D - All of the above Which of the following would FDA stands for?
A - Food and Drug Administration B - Food Depression Association C - Fixed Depression Administration D - None of the above - Correct Answer-a - Food and Drug Administration This is an agency which regulates both the development and sale of drugs. Endoscopes are cleaned and _____. A - High level disinfected. B - Sterilized. C - Low level disinfected. D - Intermediate level disinfected. - Correct Answer-A - High level disinfected. Endoscopes are critical items. Critical items are normally sterilized after being cleaned. Endoscopes cannot be sterilized and require high level disinfection. Which of the following is considered an independent nursing action? A - teaching a patient about the new diet she has been prescribed for management of her condition B - assisting the speech therapist by helping the patient practice speech exercises C - administering pain medication to the patient D - giving the patient a backrub - Correct Answer-D - giving the patient a back rub Independent nursing actions are those which do not require a physician's order. Giving a backrub is one of these independent nursing actions. In the age of managed care, actions which arise from collaborative care plans are known as interdependent actions. Which of the following is a digitalis medicine? A - Lanoxin B - Bumex C - Zestril D - Adalat - Correct Answer-A - Lanoxin (Digoxin) A digitalis medication is a cardiac glycoside that treats CHF and arrhythmias also for BP support. Bumex is a loop diuretic. Zestril is an ACE inhibitor. Adalat is a calcium blocking agent. Which of the following is not one of the steps in evidence-based practice? A - Constructing the clinical question B - Patient selection C - Appropriate selection of resources D - Appraise the validity of the evidence - Correct Answer-B - Patient selection Patent selection is not one of the steps in evidence-based practice. The steps in evidence-based practice consist of 1 - Patient assessment 2 - Constructing the clinical question 3 - Appropriate selection of resources 4 - Appraise the validity of the evidence 5 - Apply the integrated patient preferences, evidence, and clinical expertise 6 - Performance evaluation with patience
There are 3 key values that are associated with "Baby Boomers:" Involvement, Personal growth, Team You are assessing a patient prior to surgery and want to check for her surgical risk due to alcohol consumption. That patient tells you that her alcohol use varies and she does not seem willing to discuss how much she drinks. Which of the following is an appropriate strategy for getting the information you need? A - Present the patient with graphic images of the internal organs of people who abuse alcohol. B - Shame the patient into telling you what you need to know. C - Refer the patient to a social worker at the hospital. D - Ask a family member, such as the patient's spouse, about the patient's alcohol use.
- Correct Answer-D - Ask a family member, such as the patient's spouse, about the patient's alcohol use. Which of the following is NOT a concern when developing health literacy education for patients? A - Literacy level. B - Cultural background. C - Language. D - Gender - Correct Answer-D - Gender When learning in the affective domain, it would involve internalization or commitment to which of the following? A - Feelings B - Interests C - Cognitive D - Both A and B - Correct Answer-D - Both A and B When a person is learning in the affective domain, it would involve internalization or commitment to: Feelings, Interests, Attitudes, Beliefs, Values Of the following, which would be considered the name for when it would reflect the chemical structure of a drug? A - Generic name B - Common name C - Trade name D - Chemical name - Correct Answer-D - Chemical name An older patient presents with swelling in the lower extremities. Which of the following should be ordered to rule out heart failure? A - CBC B - Spirometry study C - Brain natriuretic peptide test D - Ketone balances - Correct Answer-C - Brain natriuretic peptide test (BNP) The BNP measures levels of protein made by your heart will be higher than normal since it is produced by your blood vessels in your heart.
Nurse Grace knows that the most effective way to educate her patient and assist in her patient care plan is to do what? A - Insist the patient follow the plan exactly as instructed. B - Create a schedule for the patient of future office visits and scheduled treatments. C - Establish a team effort with the patient in the teaching and learning process. D - Ask the patient to involve family members in her care planning. - Correct Answer-C - Establish a team effort with the patient in the teaching and learning process. Of the following, which would not be considered an objective symptom for tuberculosis? A - Headaches B - Night sweats C - Weight loss D - Fever - Correct Answer-A - Headaches Some of the objective symptoms for tuberculosis would be: Night sweats, Weight loss, Fever, Cough which progresses, Hemoptysis (cough up blood) An order is being written for insulin, how should the dosage order be written? A - 10 ml subq B - 10 units subq C - 10 u subq D - None of the above - Correct Answer-B - 10 units subq U for unit is on The Joint Commission's official " Do Not Use" list of abbreviations. Which of the following is NOT a "red flag" of low health literacy in a patient? A - The patient pours pills into his or her hand to identify them by sight. B - The patient is not Caucasian. C - The patient consistently asks you to read healthcare information because he or she has forgotten eyeglasses at home. D - The patient does not ask questions during the appointment. - Correct Answer-B - The patient is not Caucasian. It is important to note that you cannot assess a person's health literacy just by looking. In fact, the majority of people with low health literacy, according to a recent study, are middle class Caucasians. POCT and which of the following terms are often used interchangeably? A - Diagnosing B - Referrals C - Consultations D - Onsite testing - Correct Answer-D - Onsite testing ________ would be the feeling of distress, suffering, and/or discomfort that is considered a symptom of a condition? A - Temperature B - Pain C - Management
A - Linen. B - Uniform. C - Office supplies. D - Hypodermics. - Correct Answer-D - Hypodermics. Of the following, which would not be a predisposing factor that might cause a patient to develop a tubercle bacillus infection? A - Cirrhosis B - Alcoholism C - Poor nutrition D - The health care workers that care for low-risk patients - Correct Answer-D - The health care workers that care for low-risk patients The ______ is supposed to protect the patients' rights, help them to participate in their healthcare decisions, and provide adequate healthcare education. A - Teacher B - Advocate C - Administrator D - None of the above - Correct Answer-B - Advocate When identifying barriers such as language which can obstruct the provision of optimal patient care, which standard of care with the Standards of Professional Clinical Practice for the Ambulatory Care Nurse would it be considered? A - Standard 6 B - Standard 1 C - Standard 4 D - Standard 3 - Correct Answer-B - Standard 1 These would include such barriers as language, behavioral health issues, and culture. Nurse Terri is assessing a female patient with red, itchy spots on various parts of the body. She mentions she has no allergies but has recently switched soaps and is trying a new detergent. Terri suspects this is what type of irritation? A - irritant contact dermatitis B - cellulitis C - allergic purpura D - psoriasis - Correct Answer-A - irritant contact dermatitis Irritant contact dermatitis is a type of rash that is caused by exposure to external irritants such as cosmetics, plants, or even fabrics, and is usually diagnosed when known allergies are not present. Patients can often experience this type of dermatitis when trying new cosmetics and laundry soaps and the problem will often be resolved once the use of this product is discontinued. How far out do most health care facilities' capital budgets plan? A - 5 - 10 years. B - Less than 1 year. C - 20 years.
D - 1 - 3 years. - Correct Answer-D - 1 - 3 years. Because they deal with long-life items, most capital budgets plan for 1-3 years out from the present. It is important for nurses who work on budgets to be aware of their facility's capital budget plans for the next years so that they can appropriately request budget resources for their own units. Factors which could have the potential to promote communication would include all but which of the following? A - Respect B - Space C - Caring D - Openness - Correct Answer-B - Space Some of the factors which could have the potential to promote communication would include: Respect, Caring, Openness, Disposition, Warmth/friendliness, Empathy, Honesty, Competence ___________ would be when a leader aligns themselves with others to help obtain information, ideas, advice, power, and influence? A - Consensus-building B - Negotiation C - Networking D - Development - Correct Answer-C - Networking Details which should be focused on when choosing a glucometer would include all but which of the following? A - The type of lancing device B - Coding the machine C - The look of the meter D - The color of the meter - Correct Answer-D - The color of the meter There are 7 details which should be focused on when choosing a glucometer: The type of the lancing device, Coding of the machine, The look/display of the meter, The memory capacity of the meter, The sample size which will be needed, How long does it take for a result, Are there any additional features Which of the following emphasizes preventive services like notification of contacts for patients with infectious diseases, screenings, and immunization at the local level? A - Local schools B - Local pharmacies C - Public Health departments D - State disease control - Correct Answer-C - Public Health departments Public Health departments emphasize preventive services like notification of contacts for patients with infectious diseases, screenings, and immunization at the local level. The public health department plays an integral Lowell Community Health. What is the MOST effective form of research a nurse can do before establishing a diabetes prevention course for patients?
What type of budget should be done for a new practice? A - Zero based. B - Hyperlink Process. C - Historical based budget. D - Capital budget. - Correct Answer-A - Zero based. Established practices used historical based budgets that are based off previous years. Zero based budgets are used with new practices and requires expenses to be tracked and managed carefully. You are performing an assessment with a patient. On auscultation of heart sounds, you hear a scratching, creaking sound. Which of the following conditions might this heart sound indicate? A - congestive heart failure B - benign heart murmur C - pericarditis D - pneumothorax - Correct Answer-C - pericarditis. Patients with pericarditis will often have a scratching or creaking sound. This is known as a pericardial friction rub and results from inflammation of the pericardium. The 5 M's of categorizing information (according to the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis) would include all but which of the following? A - Materials B - Maneuvering C - Methods D - Machines - Correct Answer-B = Maneuvering The 5 M's of categorizing information (according to the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis) would include: Machines, Management, Manpower, Materials, Methods Where is the submental lymph node located? A - in the hollow of the clavicle B - right below the chin C - junction between back of head and neck D - behind the ears - Correct Answer-B - right below the chin The supraclavicular lymph node is in the hollow of the clavicle. The suboccipital lymph node is located in the junction between the back of the head and neck. The postauricular lymph node is behind the ears. The objective for nursing practice in each state would be considered all of the following except? A - Will define the practice of professional nursing. B - Provide the disciplinary action of licenses for certain causes. C - Will define the length of the shifts that the nurse may work.
D - Would set the minimal educational qualifications and other requirements for licensure. - Correct Answer-C - Will define the length of the shifts that the nurse may work. The 4 objectives for the nursing practice in each state: Will determine the legal titles and abbreviations nurses may use. Would set the minimal educational qualifications and other requirements for licensure. Provide the disciplinary action of licenses for certain causes. Will define the practice of professional nursing. In negotiations the development of trust would include which of the following? A - Do not prepare beforehand B - Do not share notes C - Develop plans D - None of the above - Correct Answer-C - Develop plans The development of trust in negotiations would include: Maintain and share notes. Observe for behavior reflecting dishonesty. Research and prepare beforehand. Develop plans. Demonstrate respect Which of the following is NOT one of the key questions of the Ask Me 3 Model? A - What is my main problem? B - What is the mortality rate for my problem? C - What do I need to do? D - Why is it important for me to do this? - Correct Answer-B - What is the mortality rate for my problem? The Ask Me 3 model provides three questions that patients should be able to answer at the end of a health care visit. The mortality rate of a given health problem may be a concern, but this model is more centered on ensuring patient understanding of the condition and the necessary next steps. Disinfectant solution needs to be marked with the name, _______. A - Date prepared and the date expired. B - Date prepared. C - Date expired. D - Solution density. - Correct Answer-A - Date prepared and the date expired. Everything needs to be clearly labeled when sterilizing equipment. Solutions needs to be labeled with their names, the date they are made, and their expiration date. A nurse encourages a patient with diabetes to eat healthier and exercise using open ended questions and encouragement. What type of interview is she using? A - Community education. B - Motivational interview. C - Group education. D - Aligning with the patient. - Correct Answer-B - Motivational interview. All of the answers are teaching strategies. A motivational interview is used to educate patients and guide them to change unhealthy behavior. Some primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted?
B - Immediately on removal from the autoclave, even if wrapping is still wet. C - As soon as the wrapping is dry. D - As soon as they reach room temperature after removal from the autoclave and all wrappings are dry. - Correct Answer-D - As soon as they reach room temperature after removal from the autoclave and all wrappings are dry. It may take several hours for items to be fully dry and cool to room temperature after removing them from the autoclave. Wet packs must at all times be considered non- sterile, even if they have cooled to room temperature. In a clinical workflow chart, what is the link that moves the workflow forward between processes? A - Dynamic connector. B - Hyperlink Process. C - On-page connector. D - Off-page connector. - Correct Answer-B - Hyperlink Process. The hyperlink process is also called the hot link. It moves the workflow forward between processes. Which of the following is meant to standardize the patient care practices? A - OSHA regulations B - Respiratory Care protocols C - MSDS sheets D - USGS protocols - Correct Answer-B - Respiratory Care protocols __________ would be when a nurse is talking with a patient and their verbal communication doesn't match their non-verbal communication? A - Incongruent B - Congruent C - Discongruent D - Non-congruent - Correct Answer-A - Incongruent Which of the following classifications of medications contain "thy?" A - Sulfonamides B - Glucocorticoids and corticosteroids C - Thyroid hormones D - Nitrates - Correct Answer-C - Thyroid hormones Thyroid hormones contain "thy. "Glucocorticoids and costicosteroids end with "sone." Nitrates contain "nitr." Sulfonamides include "sulf." Of the following, which is the greatest risk factor for childhood obesity? A - Lack of cognitive stimulation. B - Poverty. C - Parental divorce. D - Parental Education. - Correct Answer-A - Lack of cognitive stimulation.
While all the choices listed are risk factors, lack of cognitive stimulation is most strongly associated with childhood obesity. Healthcare education and screening must thus address this issue. A brief account by the patient of any signs or symptoms he or she is experiencing is known as what? A - functional assessment B - focused assessment C - review of systems D - systemic review - Correct Answer-C - review of systems In the review of systems, the patient tells the nurse in his or her own words what signs or symptoms he or she has experienced in various body systems. It is important that these be in a patient's own words to perform the most complete and accurate assessment. The preparation of a patient for "anticipated developmental or situational crisis" is known as _____. A - Anticipatory guidance. B - Preventative care. C - Anticipatory care. D - Preemptive care. - Correct Answer-A - Anticipatory guidance. Anticipatory guidance is a nursing intervention in which nurses attempt to prepare patients and/or caregivers for potential developments or situations in treatment. This can involve educating them about potential side effects and negative outcomes. In a critical care setting, it may be necessary to conduct anticipatory guidance with families as well depending on what type of aftercare the patient may need after discharge. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in cleaning up blood or other body fluids from a floor? A - Spray the area with a 1:10 solution of bleach and water. B - Put out orange cones or caution signs. C - Blot up as much of the material as possible. D - Put on latex gloves. - Correct Answer-D - Put on latex gloves. When cleaning up blood, vomit, feces, urine, or other body fluids, the first step should always be to put on protective gear. At a minimum, latex gloves should be donned. If there is a possibility of fluid spraying, goggles should be worn; in situations where clothing might come into contact with the spill, a protective gown should also be worn. Which of the following falls within the normal range for BUN:Cr? A - 40 mg/dL B - 15 mg/dL C - 55 mg/dL D - 100 mg/dL - Correct Answer-B - 15 mg/dL The normal range for BUN:Cr is 10 - 20 mg/dL. Ratios above 20 may indicate some kidney injury.
The evaluation step of the nursing process includes the nurse observing the patient and asking questions to get a better idea of the person as a whole and to ensure he is learning the health information needed. This also gives the patient a chance to ask questions and clear up any misunderstandings. A hospitalized patient is diagnosed with pressure ulcers. What is one type of independent nursing intervention that can be used to help the patient? A - Apply a drying agent to reduce moisture at the site. B - Change the patient's positions to minimize pressure on the ulcers. C - Order surgical removal of the necrotic tissue. D - Soak the areas in Epsom salt. - Correct Answer-B - Change the patient's positions to minimize pressure on the ulcers. Changing a patient's position reduces stress and pressure to the ulcer site and promotes healing. Applying a drying agent would not be effective since wounds need moisture to heal, and soaking would not relieve pressure and could spread infection. Surgical removal of the tissue would need to be prescribed and performed by a physician. The nurse is educating an adult patient regarding medications for asthma. Which order would be the most appropriate for administration? A - Albuterol, Flovent, Tobramycin B - Flovent, Intal, Tobramycin C - Tobramycin, Intal, Albuterol D - Intal, Tobramycin, Albuterol - Correct Answer-A - Albuterol, Flovent, Tobramycin Telephone triage may be a responsibility of the ambulatory care nurse. What are the appropriate components of telephone triage? A - The nurse should give generic information and leave the responsibility to the patient or caller B - The nurse should immediately call 911 C - The nurse should state that he or she is unable to discuss medical information and refer the patient to the primary care physician D - The nurse must clearly identify him- or herself, take a quick and accurate history, and quickly be able to make a decision - Correct Answer-D - The nurse must clearly identify him- or herself, take a quick and accurate history, and quickly be able to make a decision What are the best question types to ask when gaining information from a patient? A - specific, open-ended questions regarding current symptoms and medical history B - general questions with yes or no answers C - questions related to childhood diseases D - demographics questions - Correct Answer-A - specific, open-ended questions regarding current symptoms and medical history In what order would the nurse prioritize the care of the following patients presenting to the clinic at the same time: a parent carrying a smiling infant with a fever, a pale and
sweaty male with flank pain for two days, a carpenter with a nail in his thumb, and a three-year-old with vomiting. A - flank pain, three-year-old with vomiting, infant with a fever, and man with the nail B - three-year-old with vomiting, flank pain, man with the nail, and infant with fever C - flank pain, infant with fever, three-year-old with vomiting, and man with the nail D - three-year-old with vomiting, infant with fever, flank pain, and man with the nail - Correct Answer-A - flank pain, three-year-old with vomiting, infant with a fever, and man with the nail Mom has described her child's symptoms as fever for three days and vomiting for the last 24 hours. She states the child has been very sleepy for the last two to three hours. What subtle symptom alerts the nurse that this child needs to be seen as soon as possible? A - three days of fever B - three days of fever, one day of vomiting C - very sleepy for two to three hours with a fever for three days D - one day of vomiting - Correct Answer-B - three days of fever, one day of vomiting A 70-year-old female presents to the ambulatory care clinic complaining of fatigue. You begin your triage assessment, and she has a heart rate of 50, a respiratory rate of 24, and a blood pressure of 70/40. She denies chest pain, but you notice she rubs her elbows and states her arthritis is acting up. What would be your first priority when caring for this patient? A - Offer her Motrin for pain B - Offer her Tylenol for pain and send her to the waiting room C - Continue her triage and history and finish the paperwork D - Place her in a room, do an electrocardiogram (EKG), and notify the physician to see her before the other patients in the clinic because of the possibility of a heart problem - Correct Answer-D - Place her in a room, do an electrocardiogram (EKG), and notify the physician to see her before the other patients in the clinic because of the possibility of a heart problem What nonverbal clues would indicate that a patient of any age is having difficulty breathing? A - sweating in a warm room with exertion B - slight wheezing when lifting heavy objects C - laughing and joking during a triage assessment D - change in color, retractions, and noisy breathing - Correct Answer-D - change in color, retractions, and noisy breathing What would be the most appropriate order of importance for information an adult client shares when coming to a clinic visit? A - Current medications, allergies, past medical history, and past surgical history B - past medical history, past surgical history, medications, allergies, and insurance information
You are performing an assessment with a patient. On auscultation of heart sounds, you hear a scratching, creaking sound. Which of the following conditions might this heart sound indicate? A - congestive heart failure B - benign heart murmur C - pericarditis D - pneumothorax - Correct Answer-C - pericarditis - Patients with pericarditis will often have a scratching or creaking sound. This is known as a pericardial friction rub and results from inflammation of the pericardium. The 5 M's of categorizing information (according to the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis) would include all but which of the following? A - Materials B - Maneuvering C - Methods D - Machines - Correct Answer-B - maneuvering is not 5 Ms-Machines, Management, Manpower, Materials, Methods Where is the submental lymph node located? A - in the hollow of the clavicle B - right below the chin C - junction between back of head and neck D - behind the ears - Correct Answer-B - right below the chin The supraclavicular lymph node is in the hollow of the clavicle. The suboccipital lymph node is located in the junction between the back of the head and neck. The postauricular lymph node is behind the ears. Which of the following platelet counts puts your patient at serious risk of bleeding? A - 15,000/mm B - 50,000/mm C - 100,000/mm D - 145,000/mm3 - Correct Answer-A - 15, While all the choices given indicate that the patient's platelet count is lower than the acceptable range, not all the counts are low enough to cause concern for increased bleeding. Platelet counts below 20,000/mm3 do put patients at increased risk of bleeding, A disinfectant solution needs to be marked with the name, _______. A - Date prepared and the date expired. B - Date prepared. C - Date expired. D - Solution density. - Correct Answer-A - Date prepared and the date expired. A nurse encourages a patient with diabetes to eat healthier and exercise using open ended questions and encouragement. What type of interview is she using?
A - Community education. B - Motivational interview. C - Group education. D - Aligning with the patient. - Correct Answer-B - Motivational interview. Some primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted? A - Heart block B - Bradyarrhythmias C - Asystole D - All of the above - Correct Answer-D - All of the above The following indications would be for the patient that is symptomatic or those refractory to pharmacological therapy. Some of the primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted would include: Asystole, Sick-sinus syndrome, Atrial tachyarrhythmias, Bradyarrhythmias, Heart block At what point in the autoclaving process are wrapped items considered sterile? A - As soon as they reach the recommended temperature. B - Immediately on removal from the autoclave, even if wrapping is still wet. C - As soon as the wrapping is dry. D - As soon as they reach room temperature after removal from the autoclave and all wrappings are dry. - Correct Answer-D - As soon as they reach room temperature after removal from the autoclave and all wrappings are dry.
- It may take several hours for items to be fully dry and cool to room temperature after removing them from the autoclave. Wet packs must at all times be considered non- sterile, even if they have cooled to room temperature. What are the 5 steps of the nursing process? - Correct Answer-Assessment Diagnosis Planning Implementation Evaluation The preparation of a patient for "anticipated developmental or situational crisis" is known as _____. A - Anticipatory guidance. B - Preventative care. C - Anticipatory care. D - Preemptive care. - Correct Answer-A - Anticipatory guidance. Anticipatory guidance is a nursing intervention in which nurses attempt to prepare patients and/or caregivers for potential developments or situations in treatment. This can involve educating them about potential side effects and negative outcomes. A brief account by the patient of any signs or symptoms he or she is experiencing is known as what? A - functional assessment B - focused assessment
